PART-2 EXAM---------HELP please

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anvi

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Hi,
I have my part exam on Aug 22 i.e. monday.Anyone please help me in solving these qs.And also please help me with plaque and calculus maturation DAY WISE.

2. Total anterior vertical face height is determined cephalometrically from menton to:
A. The anterior nasal spine.
B. Sella.
C. Bregma.
D. Nasion.
E. Pogonion.

3. Patients who have natural dentitions generate the GREATEST amount of occlusal force duing:
A. Swallowing
B. Mastication.
C. Centric relation.
D. Parafunctional movements.

4. Which of the following represents an effective treatment for mottled enamel (chalky white color mixed with brown spots)?
A. Microabrasion with HCI.pumice.
B. Vital tooth bleaching at home.
C. Walking bleach after root canal treatment.
D. In-office bleaching with 35% hydrogen peroxide.

5. Which of the following BEST describes the development of alopecia following therapeutic radiation to the head and neck?
A. Temporary and of short duration.
B. A sign of recurrence of tumor
C. Sign of osteoradionecrosis
D. Unrelated phenomenon
E. Anticipated sequele

7. At what age are all primary teeth normally in occiusion?
A. 1 ½ to 2 years
B. 2 ½ to 3 years
C. 3 ½ to 4 years
D. Greater then 4 years

8. A freshly condensed class II amaigam restoration has a deficient margin at the proximogingival cavosurface angle this might have been caused by which of the following?
A. Over tightening the matrix band
B. Neglecting to wedge the matrix band
C. Neglecting to contour the matrix band
D. Using too large an initial increment of amalgam

9. Why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement immediately before mixing?
A. To avoid absorption of moisture from the air.
B. To avoid spreading over a large area of the slab.
C. To allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
D. To reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
E. To prevent evaporation of the volatile components.

10. Each of the following is recommended in a cavity preparation for composite resign EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Smooth cavity walls
B. Smooth regular cavosurface margins
C. Sharp, point angle retentive features
D. No unsupported enamel except in areas of esthetic concern.

11. A 6-year old girl, who has acute lymphocytic leukemia, has a deep carious lesion in a primary mandibular second molar. Her radiographs reveal that this tooth has a furcation involvement. After administering antibiotic prophylaxis, the dentist should do which of the following?
A. Extract the tooth
B. Perform a pulpotomy
C. Open the tooth for drainage
D. Perform a calcium hydroxide pulp cap

12. A patient who has a high caries index, short clinical crowns, and minimal horizontal overlap requires restoration of a maxillary central incisor. The restoration of choice is a:
A. pin-ledge restoration
B. metal-ceramic crown
C. three quarter crown
D. porcelain jacket crown


14. Placement of maxillary anterior teeth in complete dentures too far superiorly and anteriorly might result in difficulty in pronouncing which of the following sounds?
A. “F” and “Y”
B. “D” and “t”
C. “S” and “th”
D. “J” and “ch”

15. Which of the following substances derived from dental plaque bacteria is (are) capable of inducing bone resorption in a tissue culture?
A. Dextran
B. Endotoxin
C. C3b and C5a
D. Interleukin-1

16. Which of the following represents the MOST likely cause of plastic denture teeth being dislodged from the acrylic resin of the denture base?
A. Excessive occlusal forces were applied
B. The occlusal surfaces were adjusted excessively
C. Retentive undercuts were not placed in the teeth
D. The mold was contaminated with wax before processing

17. A patient presents with a restricted floor of the mouth, only 6 mandibular anterior teeth, and diastema between several teeth. Which of the following major connectors is appropriate for this patient?
A. A lingual bar
B. A lingual plate
C. A lingual bar with a kennedy bar
D. A lingual plate with interruptions (spaces) in the plate at the
diastemas

18. According to the ADA publication entitled principles of ethics and code of professional conduct, a dentist can announce specialization in which of the following?
A. Implantology
B. Hospital dentistry
C. Aesthetic dentistry
D. Dental public health
E. Genatric dentistry

19. Maxillary first premolars with mesiodistal furcation involvements are often managed successfully by surgery?
Therefore they have a good prognosis and can be included as key abutments in a fixed prosthesis
A. Both statements are TURE
B. Both statements are FALSE
C. The first statement is TRUE, second is FALSE
D. The first statement is FALSE, second is TRUE

20. A tissue-conditioning material is MOST frequently used to treat which of the following conditions?
A. Epulis fissuratum
B. Papillary hyperplasia of the mucosa
C. Tissue symptoms related to candidaalbicans
D. Traumatized mucosa caused by ill-fitting dentures
E. Sharp, residual mandibular ridges occurring in molar areas

21. The ability of a patient to make choices among treatment options represents the concept of
A. Autonomy
B. Competence
C. Beneficence
D. Paternalism

22. To enhance a patients comfort level in a dental setting, which of the following represents the MOST important action for a dentist?
A. Inform the patient of what to expect during the appointment
B. Have an auxiliary staff member present in the operatory
C. Assert control using a directive interviewing style
D. Provide an immediate evaluation of the patients oral health

E. Maintain eye contact to increase the level of intimacy

23. Which of the following physical signs indicates severe CNS oxygen deprivation?
A. Dilated pupils with increased light reflex
B. Pinpoint pupils with increased light reflex
C. Dilated pupils with an absence of light reflex
D. Pinpoint pupils with an absence of light reflex

24. Postural hypotension is a common complaint of patients who take antihypertensive agents because many of these agents interfere with the
A. Sympathetic control of vascular reflexes
B. Release of acetylcholine in the ganglia
C. Epinephrine release from the adrenal medulla
D. Parasympathetic control of vascular resistance
E. Neuromuscular transmission in skeletal muscles

25. Which of the following represents the classic sign or symptom of an anteriority displaced disc with reduction?
A. pain
B. closed lock
C. reciprocal click
D. temporal headache
E. decreased range of motion

26. Which of the following characteristics of autism presents a major obstacle to successful dental management of an ambulatory patient?
A. impaired communication
B. apparent insensitivity to pain
C. lack of intellectual development
D. inability to perform fine-motor activities
E. automations, such as hair twirling and body rocking

27. The dentist will perform a periodontal surgery on the patients palate, which of the following arteries presents the greatest hazard for complications from hemorrhage?
A. Lingual
B. Nasopalatine
C. Anterior palatine
D. Posterior palatine

28. Which of the following represents the primary purpose of using a detergent (wetting agent) on a wax pattern before investing?
A. to smooth the pattern surface
B. to eliminate the casting porosity
C. to harden the surface of the wax
D. to lower the surface tension of the wax
E. to prevent distortion of the wax pattern

29. What is effect of increasing the pKa of a local anesthetic in regard to time of archiving anesthesia and its duration of action?
Time in achieving anesthesia Duration of action
A) Shortens No change
B) Lengthens Lengthens
C) Shortens Shortens
D) Lengthens Shortens
E) No Change No Change

30. Which of the following is seen MOST frequently among temporomandibular-joint dysfunction patients?
A. Depression
B. Psychosis
C. Sociapathy
D. Schizotypical behavior
E. Passive-aggressive behavior

31. Increasing the amount of water in the mix of an improved sypsum die-stone will MOST likely result in which of the following?
A. More expansion and more strength
B. More expansion and less strength
C. Less expansion and more strength
D. Less expansion and less strength

32. A mojor advantage to patient treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern of edentulous ridge resorption. Which of the following is believed to be the reason for a more physiologic loading of the bone?
A. Delayed loading
B. Endosteal loading
C. Sequential loading
D. Progressive loading
E. Mucoperiosteal loading

33. A dentist prepares to treat a young child, the childs mother would like to accompany the child into the operatory, the dentist agrees. The effect of the mothers presence will
A. Increase treatment time
B. Improve the child’s behavior
C. Depend on the mother’s behavior
D. Have no effect on how the child behaves
E. Make the child more difficult to manage

34. When the dentist places epinephrine cord subgingivally on abraded tissue, it mimics which route of administration?
A. Intradermal
B. Topical
C. Intravenous
D. Intramuscular
E. Subcutaneous

35. Which of the following represents the BEST and to diagnose an irreversible pulpits?
A. Electric plup test
B. Thermal test
C. Radiograph
D. Percussion
E. Test cavity


37. A heat processed indirect composite inlay has each of the following advantages over direct composites, EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Reduced microleakage
B. Better wear resistance
C. Greater polymer conversion
D. Increased hardness of the material
E. Less stress on tooth from polymerization shrinkage
 
2. Total anterior vertical face height is determined cephalometrically from menton to:
A. The anterior nasal spine.
B. Sella.
C. Bregma.
D. Nasion.
E. Pogonion.

3. Patients who have natural dentitions generate the GREATEST amount of occlusal force duing:
A. Swallowing
B. Mastication.
C. Centric relation.
D. Parafunctional movements.
4. Which of the following represents an effective treatment for mottled enamel (chalky white color mixed with brown spots)?
A. Microabrasion with HCI.pumice.
B. Vital tooth bleaching at home.
C. Walking bleach after root canal treatment.
D. In-office bleaching with 35% hydrogen peroxide.

5. Which of the following BEST describes the development of alopecia following therapeutic radiation to the head and neck?
A. Temporary and of short duration.
B. A sign of recurrence of tumor
C. Sign of osteoradionecrosis
D. Unrelated phenomenon
E. Anticipated sequele

7. At what age are all primary teeth normally in occiusion?
A. 1 ½ to 2 years
B. 2 ½ to 3 years
C. 3 ½ to 4 years
D. Greater then 4 years

8. A freshly condensed class II amaigam restoration has a deficient margin at the proximogingival cavosurface angle this might have been caused by which of the following?
A. Over tightening the matrix band
B. Neglecting to wedge the matrix band
C. Neglecting to contour the matrix band
D. Using too large an initial increment of amalgam
9. Why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement immediately before mixing?
A. To avoid absorption of moisture from the air.
B. To avoid spreading over a large area of the slab.
C. To allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
D. To reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
E. To prevent evaporation of the volatile components.

10. Each of the following is recommended in a cavity preparation for composite resign EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Smooth cavity walls
B. Smooth regular cavosurface margins
C. Sharp, point angle retentive features
D. No unsupported enamel except in areas of esthetic concern.

11. A 6-year old girl, who has acute lymphocytic leukemia, has a deep carious lesion in a primary mandibular second molar. Her radiographs reveal that this tooth has a furcation involvement. After administering antibiotic prophylaxis, the dentist should do which of the following?
A. Extract the tooth
B. Perform a pulpotomy
C. Open the tooth for drainage
D. Perform a calcium hydroxide pulp cap

12. A patient who has a high caries index, short clinical crowns, and minimal horizontal overlap requires restoration of a maxillary central incisor. The restoration of choice is a:
A. pin-ledge restoration
B. metal-ceramic crown
C. three quarter crown
D. porcelain jacket crown

14. Placement of maxillary anterior teeth in complete dentures too far superiorly and anteriorly might result in difficulty in pronouncing which of the following sounds?
A. “F” and “Y”
B. “D” and “t”
C. “S” and “th”
D. “J” and “ch”

15. Which of the following substances derived from dental plaque bacteria is (are) capable of inducing bone resorption in a tissue culture?
A. Dextran
B. Endotoxin
C. C3b and C5a
D. Interleukin-1

16. Which of the following represents the MOST likely cause of plastic denture teeth being dislodged from the acrylic resin of the denture base?
A. Excessive occlusal forces were applied
B. The occlusal surfaces were adjusted excessively
C. Retentive undercuts were not placed in the teeth
D. The mold was contaminated with wax before processing

17. A patient presents with a restricted floor of the mouth, only 6 mandibular anterior teeth, and diastema between several teeth. Which of the following major connectors is appropriate for this patient?
A. A lingual bar
B. A lingual plate
C. A lingual bar with a kennedy bar
D. A lingual plate with interruptions (spaces) in the plate at the
diastemas


18. According to the ADA publication entitled principles of ethics and code of professional conduct, a dentist can announce specialization in which of the following?
A. Implantology
B. Hospital dentistry
C. Aesthetic dentistry
D. Dental public health
E. Genatric dentistry

19. Maxillary first premolars with mesiodistal furcation involvements are often managed successfully by surgery?
Therefore they have a good prognosis and can be included as key abutments in a fixed prosthesis
A. Both statements are TURE
B. Both statements are FALSE
C. The first statement is TRUE, second is FALSE
D. The first statement is FALSE, second is TRUE

20. A tissue-conditioning material is MOST frequently used to treat which of the following conditions?
A. Epulis fissuratum
B. Papillary hyperplasia of the mucosa
C. Tissue symptoms related to candidaalbicans
D. Traumatized mucosa caused by ill-fitting dentures
E. Sharp, residual mandibular ridges occurring in molar areas

21. The ability of a patient to make choices among treatment options represents the concept of
A. Autonomy
B. Competence
C. Beneficence
D. Paternalism

22. To enhance a patients comfort level in a dental setting, which of the following represents the MOST important action for a dentist?
A. Inform the patient of what to expect during the appointment
B. Have an auxiliary staff member present in the operatory
C. Assert control using a directive interviewing style
D. Provide an immediate evaluation of the patients oral health
E. Maintain eye contact to increase the level of intimacy

23. Which of the following physical signs indicates severe CNS oxygen deprivation?
A. Dilated pupils with increased light reflex
B. Pinpoint pupils with increased light reflex
C. Dilated pupils with an absence of light reflex
D. Pinpoint pupils with an absence of light reflex

24. Postural hypotension is a common complaint of patients who take antihypertensive agents because many of these agents interfere with the
A. Sympathetic control of vascular reflexes
B. Release of acetylcholine in the ganglia
C. Epinephrine release from the adrenal medulla
D. Parasympathetic control of vascular resistance
E. Neuromuscular transmission in skeletal muscles

25. Which of the following represents the classic sign or symptom of an anteriority displaced disc with reduction?
A. pain
B. closed lock
C. reciprocal click
D. temporal headache
E. decreased range of motion

26. Which of the following characteristics of autism presents a major obstacle to successful dental management of an ambulatory patient?
A. impaired communication
B. apparent insensitivity to pain
C. lack of intellectual development
D. inability to perform fine-motor activities
E. automations, such as hair twirling and body rocking

27. The dentist will perform a periodontal surgery on the patients palate, which of the following arteries presents the greatest hazard for complications from hemorrhage?
A. Lingual
B. Nasopalatine
C. Anterior palatine
D. Posterior palatine

28. Which of the following represents the primary purpose of using a detergent (wetting agent) on a wax pattern before investing?
A. to smooth the pattern surface
B. to eliminate the casting porosity
C. to harden the surface of the wax
D. to lower the surface tension of the wax
E. to prevent distortion of the wax pattern

29. What is effect of increasing the pKa of a local anesthetic in regard to time of archiving anesthesia and its duration of action?
Time in achieving anesthesia Duration of action
A) Shortens No change
B) Lengthens Lengthens
C) Shortens Shortens
D) Lengthens Shortens
E) No Change No Change

30. Which of the following is seen MOST frequently among temporomandibular-joint dysfunction patients?
A. Depression
B. Psychosis
C. Sociapathy
D. Schizotypical behavior
E. Passive-aggressive behavior

31. Increasing the amount of water in the mix of an improved sypsum die-stone will MOST likely result in which of the following?
A. More expansion and more strength
B. More expansion and less strength
C. Less expansion and more strength
D. Less expansion and less strength

32. A mojor advantage to patient treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern of edentulous ridge resorption. Which of the following is believed to be the reason for a more physiologic loading of the bone?
A. Delayed loading
B. Endosteal loading
C. Sequential loading
D. Progressive loading
E. Mucoperiosteal loading

33. A dentist prepares to treat a young child, the childs mother would like to accompany the child into the operatory, the dentist agrees. The effect of the mothers presence will
A. Increase treatment time
B. Improve the child’s behavior
C. Depend on the mother’s behavior
D. Have no effect on how the child behaves
E. Make the child more difficult to manage

34. When the dentist places epinephrine cord subgingivally on abraded tissue, it mimics which route of administration?
A. Intradermal
B. Topical
C. Intravenous
D. Intramuscular
E. Subcutaneous
35. Which of the following represents the BEST and to diagnose an irreversible pulpits?
A. Electric plup test
B. Thermal test
C. Radiograph
D. Percussion
E. Test cavity

37. A heat processed indirect composite inlay has each of the following advantages over direct composites, EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A. Reduced microleakage
B. Better wear resistance
C. Greater polymer conversion
D. Increased hardness of the material
E. Less stress on tooth from polymerization shrinkage
 
Hi,
Thanks for the reply.
I think the answers are these for the above qs.Please correct me if i am wrong.
9) A
11)A poor prognosis with furcation involvement
15) B
16)D
32)B
 
When does complete epithelialization occur after a periodontal flap procedure?
7-10 days
21-28 days
5-6 weeks
2 Months
6 Months
Displacement of odontoblastic nuclei the dentinal tubules is MOST likely a response to:
Pressure
Desiccation
Chemical irritation
Mechanical Irritation
Thermal Irritation
Which of the following represents the MOST common neoplasm of the minor salivary glands?
Monomorphic adenoma
Plemorphic adenoma
Acinic cell carcinoma
Mucoepidermoid carcinoma
Polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma
Which of the following is the MOST likely tissue reaction to gross overextension of a complete denture that has been worn for a long time?
Epulis fissuratum
Pyogenic granuloma
Papillary hyperplasia
Fibrotic hyperkeratosis
Gaint cell reparative granuloma
In a subcondylar neck fracture of the mandible, the condylar head would MOST likely be displaced in which of the following directions?
Inferiorly and medially
Superiorly and medially
Inferiorly and laterally
Superiorly and laterally
Posteriorly and laterally
Which of the following MOST commonly appears as a diffuse radiopacity of the maxilla and exhibits a corresponding bony enfargement?
Cementoblastoma
Multiple myeloma
Fibrous dysplasia
Infantile conical hyperostosis (Catley disease)
Each of the following is an advantage of resin modified glass ionomers over traditional glass ionomers EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
Esthetics
Bond Strength
Wear resistance
Moisture sensitivity
Coefficient of thermal expansion
Which of the following represents the new mA required if originally settings are 10mA and 1 second, and the new time is 0.5 seconds with density remaining the same?
5
10
15
20
Which of the following represents the principal goal of selective occlusal adjustment?
To create flat occlusal planes to enhance lateral stabilizing forces
To direct occlusal forces along the long axis of the tooth
To establish a coincident centric relation/centric occlusion
To resolve a bilaterally balanced occlusion
To reduce plaque-induced attachment loss
Which of the following movements should a dentist use in removing a primary maxillary second molar?
Rotation
Rotation and lingual movement
More buccal than lingual movement
More lingual than buvval movement
Which of the following is a major advantage in fabricating a direct/indirect resign inlay or onlay?
Provides a better dentist seat
Simplifies the bonding procedure
Improves shade-matching to the natural tooth
Minimizes the effects of polymerization shrinkage
 
1) At twice the distance from the radiation source, the intensity of the beam is diminished by which of the following factors?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 8
D) 16
E) 32

2) Non-adherent plaque is more prevalent supragingivally than subgingivally?

The subgingival non-adherent plaque usually contains bacteria that are more pathologic then adherent plaque bacteria.
A) Both statements are TRUE
B) Both statements are FALSE
C) The first statement is TRUE, second is FALSE
D) The first statement is FALSE, second is TRUE

3) In a cephalometric tracing, point B represents which of the following?
A) The anterior limit of the mandibular apical base
B) The anterior limit of the maxillary apical base
C) The most anterior point on the contour of the chin
D) The most inferior point on the mandibular symphysis
E) The midpoint of the mandibular symphysis

4) Which of the following is the MOST effective method to sterilize a diamond but in the dental office?
A) Dry heat
B) Ethylene Oxide
C) Steam autoclave
D) Cold Chemical immersion

5) Which of the following is the MOST definitive way to differentiate between a dentigerouscyst, an odontogenic keratocyst and an ameloblastoma?
A) Fluorescence microscopy
B) Immunofluorescence microscopy
C) Phase-contrast microscopy
D) Reactive light microscopy
E) Exfoliative cytology

6) In orthodontic treatment, which of the following has the GREATEST range of action?
A) 7mm length leg of wire with 3mm diameter wire loop
B) 10mm length leg of wire with 3mm diameter wire loop
C) 7mm length leg of wire with 1.5mm diameter wire loop
D) 10mm length leg of wire with 1.5mm diameter wire loop

7) Which of the following represents the MOST probable cause of a serious toxic reaction to a local anesthetic?
A) Psychogenic
B) Deterioration of the anesthetic agent
C) Hypersensitivity to the vasoconstructor
D) Hypersensitivity to the local anesthetic
E) Excessive blood level of the local anesthetic
 
1) The use of ketoconazole is CONTRAINDICATED with
A) Chlorpheniramine (Chlor-Trimeton)
B) Dimenhydrinate (Dramamine)
C) Disphenhydramine (Benadryl)
D) Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed)
E) Astemizol (Hismanal)

2) A restoration the dentist is luting to a preparation has a questionable resistance/retention form. Which of the following luting agents can the dentist use to help compensate for this?
A) EBA cement
B) Resin Cement
C) Glass ionomer cement
D) Zinc phosphate cement
E) Polycarboxylate cement

3) To build optimal rapport with a patient, the dentist should do which of the following?
A) Use minimal interresponse space
B) Speak with a soft monotone voice
C) Maintain persistent eye contact
D) Actively listen

4) When used for mandibular setback (to treat prognathism), each of the following is correct regarding the intraoral vertical oblique ramus osteotomy EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A) Rigid fixation is not usually obtained
B) The distal segment includes the condyle
C) The inferior alveolar nerve remains with the distal segment when the jaw is repositioned
D) Permanent paresthesia of the lower lip is seldom encountered.

5) Which of the following represents the MOST important monitor for a patient who is undergoing nitrous oxide sedation?
A) Pulse rate
B) Skin color
C) Blood pressure
D) Patient response
E) Oxygen saturation level

6) Which of the following synchondroses is the last to mineralize?
A) Sphenoethmoidal
B) Spheno-occipital
C) Intraoccipital
D) Intrasphenoidal

7) Which of the following is the MOST reliable for determining the pupl vitality of a tooth with a full cast crown?
A) Radiographic examination
B) Electric pulp test
C) Thermal test
D) Palpation

8) A 47-year old patient has an area of gingival tissue that is sore, shiny and red. A blast of air lifts a white membrane, leaving a bleeding, denuded surface. This condition indicates a need for:
A) Gingivectomy
B) Subgingival curettage
C) Biopsy and/or careful medical evaluation
D) Careful plaque control and change of dentifrice
E) A surgical procedure to increase the band of attached gingiva

9) Which of the following is the MOST desirable characteristic of a metal-ceramic crown?
A) Formation of a thick oxide layer
B) Formation of a gold oxide layer on casting
C) Greater resistance to compressive stress than to tensile stress
D) Coefficient of thermal expansion that is slightly greater than that of porocelain

10) Each of the following is a determinant of mandibular movement EXCEPT one. Which on is this EXCEPTION?
A) Rest position
B) Condylar inclination
C) Intercondylar distance
D) Distance of the teeth from the condyle

11) Which of the following is the MOST common surgical procedure for treating chronic recurrent dislocation of the temporomandibular joint?
A) Total joint replacement
B) Corrective orthognathic surgery
C) Articular eminectomy, usually combined with capsular placation
D) An interpositional arthroplasty, often combined with a coronoidectomy
E) Coronoidectomy and release of temporalis muscle from the mandible

12) Each of the following is a characteristic of good instruction in plaque control EXCEPT one. Which one is this EXCEPTION?
A) Proceed with small steps at a time
B) Encourage active patient participation.
C) Provide the patient with immediate feedback
D) Provide as much information as possible at each appointment.

13) A new local anesthetic works by increasing potassium permeability. Which of the following BEST describes its effects on the resting membrane potential and the peak of the action potential?
Resting Potential Action Potential
A) Significantly hyperpolarize No change
B) Significantly hyperpolarize Slight Increase
C) No change slightly Increase
D) Slightly hyperpolarize Increase
E) No change No Change

14) A single therapeutic dose of aspirin will prolong bleeding time for up to?
A) 4 hours
B) 10 hours
C) 1 day
D) 1 week
E) 1 month

15) Which of the following cements is MOST appropriate for the cementation of a ceramic onlay?
A) Glass ionomer
B) Zinc phosphate
C) Composite resin
D) Zinc polycarboxylate
E) Resin-modified glass ionomer

16) The concave profile of a cleft palate patient would likely result from which of the following?
A) Underdeveloped maxilla
B) Posteriorly displaced maxilla
C) Deficiency of the nasal conchae
D) Malpositioned maxillary anterior teeth

17) Xerostomia can predispose to which of the following?
A) Mucocele
B) Auriculotemporal syndrome
C) Malignant tumor of a salivary gland
D) Retrograde infection of salivary glands
E) Increased sodium concentration in saliva

18) Rapidly progressive periodontitis can be used to describe advanced bone loss I adults when which of the following conditions exists?
A) The patient is 35 years old or older
B) The lesions recur in successfully treated patients
C) The changes are documented over several months
D) There is an associated systemic disease problem

ANYONE PLEASE LET ME THE ANSWERS FOR THE ABOVE QS.AND ALSO,LET
ME KNOW PLAQUE AND CALCULUS MATURATION DAY WISE.
 
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