Hey,
I don't understand the mechanism behind passive dorsiflexion and plantar flexion at all. I can read that "In passive dorsiflexion in the anke joint, the muscles ventrally of the axis of movement will relax and those dorsally of the axis will contract".
That does not make any sense. If tibialis anterior relaxes (ventrally), then gastrocnemius (dorsally) will contract? That would give a plantar flexion and not a dorsiflexion.
I'm seriously confused.
I don't understand the mechanism behind passive dorsiflexion and plantar flexion at all. I can read that "In passive dorsiflexion in the anke joint, the muscles ventrally of the axis of movement will relax and those dorsally of the axis will contract".
That does not make any sense. If tibialis anterior relaxes (ventrally), then gastrocnemius (dorsally) will contract? That would give a plantar flexion and not a dorsiflexion.
I'm seriously confused.
Last edited: