patho q on 2 hit hypothesis ? plz help

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sadaca

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hey guys, I thought I had this concept down, but after getting this wrong i am very lost.
What do u think the answer is??

one allele deletion or two allele deletion??

Appreciate it
 

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One allele deletion. It's not the typical tumor suppressor (2 hit hypothesis) mutation because p53 mutation is dominant-negative. So the mutated allele inactivates the normal allele, thus you only need one bad p53 allele.

Edit: Also, the pt has a FMH and not a PMH of cancers... which is probably what the question is really getting at.
 
hey friend, thanks for the answer. It IS one allele deletion. I thought in the 2 hit hypothesis , you are born with one mutated allele and once u get a somatic mutation of 2nd one, THAT will lead to unregulated growth and therefore Cancer. Isn't that the case of Rb gene and 2nd hit will lead to other cancers like osteosarcoma?

Thanks alot appreciate ur help
 
I am confused b/c they said the patient has a history of those CA's. So I guess only if they said HE HAS those cancers then you can say it is due to 2 allele deletion? But right now , genetically it is only one hit.
 
I am confused b/c they said the patient has a history of those CA's. So I guess only if they said HE HAS those cancers then you can say it is due to 2 allele deletion? But right now , genetically it is only one hit.

It says the patient has a strong family medical history, not a strong past medical history meaning that the patient themself hasn't had cancer. The family history says that there is likely a genetic problem that has not yet affected the patient. Since it's merely a family history, the patient does not yet have a second mutated or deleted p53. The fact that p53 is a dominant-negative mutation probably doesn't matter for this question.
 
hey fatalis! actually this was one was not (its from UW self assessment) but crap i'm giving nbme 16 soon lol
 
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