As the treating psychiatrist, what do you do?
How do you determine the patient's function at work?
How do you determine the patient's function at work?
Aware of this but unfortunately encouraged by my attendings to do it anyway for patients who are deserving.Should probably read the AMA's Guides to Causation, and at least know that there are some professional guidelines indicating a treating provider should not be doing this.
We are applying different standards - they are different conditions.I’ll do short term disability if I think it’s appropriate which is honestly very rare. I’ve needed short term disability paperwork filled out to get paid for maternity leave with short term disability money and I’d have been pretty pissed if my OB had told me to get an independent opinion. Same goes for having surgery. It’s the treating surgeon who did the paperwork. It seems like we are applying a different standard to mental health compared to the rest of medicine here IMO.
Long term disability is a different beast and I don’t get involved in that.
We are applying different standards - they are different conditions.
Pregnancy is straightforward - you are pregnant.
C-section, straight forward x amount of time off
Depression and anxiety are treatable. ECT, IOP, PHP, TMS, etc.
Some people who are seeking disability have not actually engaged fully into the treatment process or are unwilling to and simply declare "I'm disabled, fill out my paperwork"
Is a gravid or post op c-section women ever not fully engaged in treatment?
Should probably read the AMA's Guides to Causation, and at least know that there are some professional guidelines indicating a treating provider should not be doing this.
Yes, fill out FMLA in order to get ECT or do PHP. That's different than STD.
I'm aware of these distinctions.FMLA is unpaid leave which guarantees that you cannot be fired for up to 12 weeks. Short term disability benefits allow you to get some money during FMLA leave-often a fraction of your normal salary.
Short term disability forms I have seen specifically are labeling “treating attending physician” statement or something similar.
Would be absurd not to allow treating providers to sign short term disability forms. Given the modern transition of most companies to rely on short term disability policies to replace extended sick leave, almost every single person who has a non-government job and delivers a baby or has surgery is going to have their surgeon/OBGYN sign off on minimum of 6 weeks short term disability.
I think it is absurd to allow some corporate policy to supersede professional guidelines.
In my experience the short term disability “treating physician” forms just are asking me to write down various facts summarizing medical record such as diagnosis, current/past symptoms, past treatments, my prognosis, expected recovery time, if I have advised them not to work, etc.
This then seems to be reviewed by someone from the company or independent consultant who makes a determination. Occasionally they call me and ask for clarification to help make their decision.
Ultimately I’m just providing information to a third party, so they can make a determination.
Ultimately the AMA and the AAPLS have opined that treating providers should not become involved in legal matters, including disability. Dunno how you work around that.
What part of the tolerance section of the return to work guidelines do you use? Cause you read the professional guidelines in that area, before offering an opinion, right?
I think your conflating what are actually genuine bona fide big legal questions (long term disability, fitness to serve in armed forces, competency for trial,etc) with other much more routine things that are just part of the routine practice of medicine in modern society.
I have no idea what specific guidelines your talking about and if you asked 100 OBGYNs/surgeons/family doctors none of them would either, but all of them on a daily basis provide clinical opinions on when they do or don’t recommended that someone work in the short term.
The medical system would completely break if treating doctors had to send patients to an independent (and expensive) evaluation every time a patient needed a sick day work excuse, return to work after illness/surgery/hospitalization form, short term disability form, etc.
And again, back to the relevant question of the the “treating physician” short term disability forms, we aren’t actually determining someone is disabled. Just providing the requested data for the disability company to pass along to whichever hired gun they contract out the determinations to.
Are you the same psychologist who was trolling the forum awhile ago about benzos for procedural sedation? As I typed this post felt some deja vu
Ultimately the AMA and the AAPLS have opined that treating providers should not become involved in legal matters, including disability. Dunno how you work around that.
I think your conflating what are actually genuine bona fide big legal questions (long term disability, fitness to serve in armed forces, competency for trial,etc) with other much more routine things that are just part of the routine practice of medicine in modern society.
I have no idea what specific guidelines your talking about and if you asked 100 OBGYNs/surgeons/family doctors none of them would either, but all of them on a daily basis provide clinical opinions on when they do or don’t recommended that someone work in the short term.
The medical system would completely break if treating doctors had to send patients to an independent (and expensive) evaluation every time a patient needed a sick day work excuse, return to work after illness/surgery/hospitalization form, short term disability form, etc.
And again, back to the relevant question of the the “treating physician” short term disability forms, we aren’t actually determining someone is disabled. Just providing the requested data for the disability company to pass along to whichever hired gun they contract out the determinations to.
Are you the same psychologist who was trolling the forum awhile ago about benzos for procedural sedation? As I typed this post felt some deja vu
@PsyDr was indeed the person who implied it is illegal or fraudulent to give someone Ativan before a CT scan without a specific diagnosis to justify it. They are not someone who has a good grasp on how medicine is actually practiced.
At the end of the day, guidelines are great and all, but I am happy to say that in more than one area I do not infrequently find myself doing something not in relevant guidelines. I always make sure to have justification and be very cognizant of what I am doing but there it is.
Legal niceties are not the same as morality or clinical good judgment. Do you recognize the difference, @PsyDr ? I've never seen you draw the distinction.
Im not trolling at all. I am a psychologist who deals with this stuff on a daily basis. And explaining this stuff probably harms my overall ear if potential.
There are professional standards. Many many many psychiatrists and psychologists seem to either be unaware or willfully ignorant of these standards. The entire idea of pragmatism trumping professional guidelines is not only lazy; it’s saying that the rules only apply when it’s convenient to you. Thankfully we know the personality configuration for that.
We will have to agree to disagree, I have worked with reputable forensic psychiatrists and clinical psychologists who all would laugh their ass off if I referred a woman with postpartum depression to them so she get could get a “treating physician statement” form signed.
As “attending physician” who “treats” patients, I will be happy to defend any lawsuit I encounter for what you think is the wrong act of filling out a “treating attending physician statement” form mailed specifically to me by an insurance company at the request of a patient of mine.
I do not believe I said it was fraudulent or illegal to give a benzo for a procedure . I asked what the diagnosis was, and you guys responded with ad hominems. Which was cool.
I really don’t think there would be a lawsuit. And I don’t care what you do so long as what you do is completely informedwith a familiarity with your own professional guidelines. Give me a reasonable minority.
Imagine work where you read guidelines, and then say, “did you do these guidelines?”, and they freak out on you, tell you that the rules don’t apply to them, that they don’t even know what you’re taking about.
No, we kept telling you that nobody documents a specific diagnostic code or diagnosis when doing this in any of the dozens of institutions we have collectively worked in and you kept asking what the code is. You also said you were a forensic psychologist several times and that you testify in court when we told you this isn't how it actually works and is not a thing that is done.
I see three possible things you were trying to say: a) you don't like to read what people are saying b) you like mentioning irrelevant things or c) there is something wrong with this practice relevant to you being a forensic psychologist.
No ad hominem here my friend.
I’m almost always being extremely literal and direct on sdn. And I’m trying to promote you guys to either:
1) use diagnostic criteria and the resulting treatment guidelines. You guys get mad af when I bring this up. Doesn’t change the matter.
2) change the professional guidelines for your own profession. I have zero influence in this, but just maybe if there are problems it should be handled.
3) learn your own professional guideline and give a reasonable explanation for the deviation thereof.
I refuse to believe that your profession refuses to read the literature and professional guidelines before engaging in a practice area. You’re better than that.
This is an essential difference between physicians (psychiatrists) and other MH disciplines (psychology, social work.) We grew up in the medical model where you have a lot of leeway to make decisions in the best interest of the patient. There is not a perfect evidence base for every possible combination of conditions. Sometimes you have to use your knowledge of pathology, drug mechanism, and, as psychiatrists, psychological and social factors, to arrive at a reasonable treatment plan. Guidelines are just that, suggested treatment plans not taking specific patient factors into account.I’m almost always being extremely literal and direct on sdn. And I’m trying to promote you guys to either:
1) use diagnostic criteria and the resulting treatment guidelines. You guys get mad af when I bring this up. Doesn’t change the matter.
2) change the professional guidelines for your own profession. I have zero influence in this, but just maybe if there are problems it should be handled.
3) learn your own professional guideline and give a reasonable explanation for the deviation thereof.
I refuse to believe that your profession refuses to read the literature and professional guidelines before engaging in a practice area. You’re better than that.
Aware of this but unfortunately encouraged by my attendings to do it anyway for patients who are deserving.
I have a couple of patients who I really don't think will ever be able to work (although my goal is to get them better) and so I did fill out their long term disability applications. I'm aware it's a disincentive to get better but the odds of them being well enough to work are super low anyway.
As a slight aside to all of this, I've come across physicians in other specialties who refuse to do any forms ("I don't do any paperwork" -- neuro, sleep, pain). Who is a patient supposed to ask if they're actually disabled by their epilepsy/narcolepsy/severe chronic pain other than the doctor who treats them for said issue?
Please identify the actual, concrete, clinical problem caused by not making up a specific diagnosis before giving an empiric benzo to someone inpatient so they can get an MRI.
Please also identify the patients or providers who benefit from having a factitious and arbitrary code recorded consistently prior to receiving it.
This is an essential difference between physicians (psychiatrists) and other MH disciplines (psychology, social work.) We grew up in the medical model where you have a lot of leeway to make decisions in the best interest of the patient. There is not a perfect evidence base for every possible combination of conditions. Sometimes you have to use your knowledge of pathology, drug mechanism, and, as psychiatrists, psychological and social factors, to arrive at a reasonable treatment plan. Guidelines are just that, suggested treatment plans not taking specific patient factors into account.
BTW, the AMA guides are controversial, not universally accepted guidelines, and most of the examples we're discussing are not related to cause determination.
You presume wrong2) I am not advocating factitious diagnoses at all. I would presume that a patient's insurance requires a diagnosis for a medication.
1) Medications are created for specific purposes. If there is a specific pathology, then appropriate treatment is a nonissue.
I assume that you are equally against the use of psychotherapeutic techniques to treat non-pathology and clearly label every technique that you employ in every session and exactly what pathology it is addressing in a purely evidence based fashion, meaning that if there is no adequately blinded and controlled experiment of your intervention for a population with the exact comborbidity of your patient you do nothing.
You're also, I assume, adamently against ever having a beer to feel a little better or coffee in the AM when you're tired. Part of being physician is knowing when pharmacology can very judiciously be used without harm to improve life in a way that doesn't grant a competitive advantage/come with significant risks. Should we not treat pain, a completely normal phsyiological response?
1) Medications are created for specific purposes.
B. You are onto something. I do conceptualize psychotherapy as having two uses: treating pathology, and for self knowledge/improvement. I do not believe that third party payors should pay for the latter.
You are now a third party payor, congratulations. I have a patient who is a bit anxious about getting their brain MRI. I do not have evidence of a specific phobia or any other diagnosis. They think that a little something to help them calm down would be nice.
You have two choices: you can trust my judgement and pay $0.50 for an Ativan or you can risk the procedure happening without the Ativan and in my experience you're risking about a 50/50 having to repeat a $1000 scan. Now you can make me code this excessively and make up some diagnosis, ect., but I'm going to drop you as a payor because frankly that's a waste of my time and now you don't have any hospitals that take your plan and all of your customers drop you.
That's the world that I live in.
Not quite the world we live in. To be honest, being a ****ty third party payor that refuses to cover a lot of things has not caused many people to do much about it. Just ask United and BCBS, particularly in my region. People (providers and patients alike) absolutely hate them. Doesn't stop them from reaping record profits. Insurance and healthcare don't really operate on the ideals of the free market.
That's all true enough, but you know what I have never seen even cut rate insurance refuse to pay for?
Half a milligram of Ativan for someone who needs an MRI and has no anxiety diagnosis.
Just. Not. A. Thing. I am not sure why this statement is controversial.
Ultimately the AMA and the AAPLS have opined that treating providers should not become involved in legal matters, including disability. Dunno how you work around that.
What part of the tolerance section of the return to work guidelines do you use? Cause you read the professional guidelines in that area, before offering an opinion, right?
Oh, I wasn't commenting on that, I'll let you guys fight that one out, it's fun to watch. I was merely commenting on the laughable idea that insurance companies are subject to any kind of market pressure for not paying for things, or being generally terrible entities for anyone involved to have to deal with.
3) learn your own professional guideline and give a reasonable explanation for the deviation thereof.
As a factual claim about the history of how pharmaceutical agents are developed, this is breathtakingly ill-informed. I can only assume you would say this from being genuinely unfamiliar with the facts of the matter, which is fine given you don't prescribe medications. Now if only you stopped making claims about how they are prescribed...
There is an entire specialty dedicated to symptomatic treatment without any attempt or interest in correcting a putative underlying pathology, namely palliative care. I would love to hear you explain how they are all being grossly negligent because they are harnessing non-specific effects of medications to make patients' lives more bearable or to die well.
You keep using the word "pathology" like it has an independent meaning or is an easily read-off property of the world. This is just not the case in the majority of chronic medical illnesses, and in mental health all it means is "thing a committee of people decided to call pathology". The distinction between pathological and non is much more notional than actual.
I would love to see an example of a malpractice suit being won by a plaintiff on the basis of a medication being used in a non-specific fashion to achieve a well- documented effect. If not, well...
That's a lot of inferences about things I never said.
At no point did I say there was a malpractice suit. I was asked what I did, I explained, and included my own rationale.
And let's keep in mind, you guys brought up the entire benzos thing AGAIN. Not me. And it was brought up as an ad hominem.
Ah yes, you only use direct and literal language and never try to imply anything beyond the concrete referents of your words. Right, so this sentence of yours from up-thread about why everything must be documented as targeting specific pathology:
"In my understanding, this is part of avoiding the negligence arm of a malpractice tort."
I will assume this is meant to be a sentence of American English rather than a Martian dialect that you can construct a false cognate sentence matching this one in as a party trick. So, praytell, being very literal and direct, explain again how you did not mention a malpractice suit related to this issue?
Let's be clear, though. You can't talk about what you do in prescribing medications because you don't (unless they are tapping prescribing psychologists to staff MRI suites, bit of a waste). So you are either analogizing (non-literal) or being irrelevant (useless).
You are trying to have it both ways - you make statements insisting that universal practices are wrong for very unconvincing reasons, and then when you get pushback on those reasons you start saying that you never said any such thing.
For someone proud of careful language use it is surprising how unaware you are of how native English speakers interpret sentences. Assuming you are arguing in good faith, of course, which I dearly still want to believe.
You're taking that quote out of context. That specific quote is my response to someone asking about my own practices. Which I gave, and gave my rationale for. At no point did I say anything about someone being liable for malpractice. That is your assumption.
I did NOT bring up the benzos discussion. You guys did. To my knowledge, I haven't said that was wrong. I asked what the diagnosis was. And absent diagnoses, I have asked what the limits are.
My specific thing in this thread was asking about psychiatry's professional standards and the limits thereof.
Really? So what's the question, exactly?
The Ativan thing came up because it is much of a muchness with your beef about short term disability. The form goes like this:
1) you post here, citing a professional society guideline or legal or insurance standard as a reason for saying that an incredibly common and unremarkable practice that you don't participate in is wrong.
2) you mention that you are forensically trained and that malpractice is a thing without explicitly ever connecting it to #1, funny how that keeps happening
3) we say "this is actually super common and uncontroversial in practice"
4) you continue saying a combination of 1+3
5) we challenge your assumptions (unstated but based on repeated references to legal standards) that this puts us in medicolegal jeopardy
6) we tell you that is ridiculous
7) you maintain you are just asking questions, jeez, why are you all so mad, you never said anything about a lawsuit, calm down
I just ask that you take a moment to consider the possibility that people who do this every day for their job are maybe slightly more familiar with how things actually work and what a sensible set of guidelines should be based on than you do, who does not practice medicine, as it happens.
There are exactly 3 items out of 7 that’s mine.
You seem pretty worked up on that.
I’ll reply that someone who does this every day for his job might have a reasonable set of questions.
Edit: or maybe those appeals to authority are formal errors of logic.