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So, how real is "unopposed" alpha1 stimulation in terms of COFFEE and a non-specific B-blockade?
Is this more theoretical? Or is it something that will really drive up BP??
I can see the problem with something like phenylephrine and propranolol, but coffee?? (I realize caffeine has multiple MOAs, only one of which is potentiation of E/NE)
Is this more theoretical? Or is it something that will really drive up BP??
I can see the problem with something like phenylephrine and propranolol, but coffee?? (I realize caffeine has multiple MOAs, only one of which is potentiation of E/NE)