Phatmaceutical equivalence and bioequivalence

[Akam ahz]

Hello,
I am a dental student, and this year I have just started a course in general pharmacology.

While studying the topic of Bioavailability, I came across this part:

"Two drugs that are bioequivalent may not be therapeutically equivalent as the serum concentration may not be comparable."

I don't understand what is meant by the sentence, i understand the concept but don't get a clear idea of the meaning.

Any help in a simple language would be highly appreciated.

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[PA_dud3]

Hello,
I am a dental student, and this year I have just started a course in general pharmacology.

While studying the topic of Bioavailability, I came across this part:

"Two drugs that are bioequivalent may not be therapeutically equivalent as the serum concentration may not be comparable."

I don't understand what is meant by the sentence, i understand the concept but don't get a clear idea of the meaning.

Any help in a simple language would be highly appreciated.

So, two drugs that have the same action will not always have the same therapeutic effect due to their bioavailability. For example, an IV always has higher Bioavailability (near 100%, as it is immediately available in the blood stream) whereas an oral tablet metabolized hepatically will not have the same bioavailability (maybe like 65-70%, because it must bypass the liver to reach the bloodstream) even if they are the same drug intended to treat the same thing. This can vary due to food in the stomach, other medications, etc.

This could be wrong but this is just my basic understanding of it. Hope this helps.