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Hi, I'm sure this is going to show up b/c central pharm is emphasized.
In my First Aid (2004 p. 306, 2006 p. 204), they are showing the effects of phenylephrine on systolic and diastolic pressure.
If you have alpha 1 agonism, that would increase peripheral vascular resistance and hence increase the diastolic pressure curve. However, this would also cause the baroreceptor reflex in a normotensive pt. and you get reflex bradycardia. So why does the systolic pressure increase in this set of curves (bottom left corner graph on the page) with no narrowing of the pulse pressure (i.e. dec. systolic curve, inc. diastolic curve)?
Is it because the alpha 1 agonism is so strong that the baroreceptor reflex does not overcome the increase diastolic and hence the heart will then increase its contractility in order to overcome a greater afterload?
Thanks!
In my First Aid (2004 p. 306, 2006 p. 204), they are showing the effects of phenylephrine on systolic and diastolic pressure.
If you have alpha 1 agonism, that would increase peripheral vascular resistance and hence increase the diastolic pressure curve. However, this would also cause the baroreceptor reflex in a normotensive pt. and you get reflex bradycardia. So why does the systolic pressure increase in this set of curves (bottom left corner graph on the page) with no narrowing of the pulse pressure (i.e. dec. systolic curve, inc. diastolic curve)?
Is it because the alpha 1 agonism is so strong that the baroreceptor reflex does not overcome the increase diastolic and hence the heart will then increase its contractility in order to overcome a greater afterload?
Thanks!