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It was my understanding from class that positive predictive value was determined by the prevalence of the disease in the population and the characteristics of the test/disease, not by the arbitrarily decided "test threshold," but UWorld just asked a question in which moving the test threshold a less stringent level decreased the positive predictive value.
This does not agree with my understanding of PPV. Can anyone explain, confirm, or refute?
This does not agree with my understanding of PPV. Can anyone explain, confirm, or refute?