If a pregnant woman has a + VRDL (but no other signs or symptoms of syphillis) and you are waiting on the confirmatory test, can you still treat with penicillin?
If a pregnant woman's partner has gonorrhea or chlamydia but she doesn't have signs or symptoms, can you begin treating the patient without the the test results (i.e. culture or NAAT)?
I believe in a non-pregnant woman I think you wouldn't in the former until a confirmatory test came back (or unless they had clinical signs or symptoms) and in the latter in a non-pregnant woman I think you wouldn't just give the patient meds without a positive test or signs or symptoms. However I am not so certain about the pregnant women. On the one hand you want to get the diagnosis before treating unnecessarily but on the other hand if you wait, you could risk congenital anomalies.
If a pregnant woman's partner has gonorrhea or chlamydia but she doesn't have signs or symptoms, can you begin treating the patient without the the test results (i.e. culture or NAAT)?
I believe in a non-pregnant woman I think you wouldn't in the former until a confirmatory test came back (or unless they had clinical signs or symptoms) and in the latter in a non-pregnant woman I think you wouldn't just give the patient meds without a positive test or signs or symptoms. However I am not so certain about the pregnant women. On the one hand you want to get the diagnosis before treating unnecessarily but on the other hand if you wait, you could risk congenital anomalies.
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