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So I think I may be over thinking this or missing something very basic. I know that an SvO2 > 70% is one of the treatment targets in sepsis. What I dont get is why in sepsis would SvO2 drop to begin with if you have a distributive shock and you cant perfuse tissue adequately? I would think that if you have less peripheral perfusion that you would have a higher SvO2
I (believe) I understand that SvO2 will decrease when you have higher metabolic O2 demand in the tissues, and that when SvO2 drops to a certain point the metabolic demands of the tissue will force it into anaerobic metabolism; but if you cant deliver oxygen (which is my conception of distributive shock) how would you lower SvO2 by increased O2 consumption?
I (believe) I understand that SvO2 will decrease when you have higher metabolic O2 demand in the tissues, and that when SvO2 drops to a certain point the metabolic demands of the tissue will force it into anaerobic metabolism; but if you cant deliver oxygen (which is my conception of distributive shock) how would you lower SvO2 by increased O2 consumption?