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- Jan 7, 2006
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So I have this question and I don't understand why my answer is wrong. I can understand Kaplan's rationale, but I'm curious if I can actually be right.
The problem gives me information about this man w/ blastic changes on XR. Clearly they are talking about Prostate Ca. Anyway, the question is asking me for the next appropriate step after looking at the XR.
I am down to PSA and digital rectal exam. Why would you do a digital rectal exam as the next step? I feel like, PSA levels would be obtained eventually so why not get it first. In fact, DREs will throw off the PSA value. However, the explanation states that they would use PSA as a marker for treatment progress.
But in real life, don't you always do a PSA first followed by a rectal?
I guess more importantly, what would the NBME do?
The problem gives me information about this man w/ blastic changes on XR. Clearly they are talking about Prostate Ca. Anyway, the question is asking me for the next appropriate step after looking at the XR.
I am down to PSA and digital rectal exam. Why would you do a digital rectal exam as the next step? I feel like, PSA levels would be obtained eventually so why not get it first. In fact, DREs will throw off the PSA value. However, the explanation states that they would use PSA as a marker for treatment progress.
But in real life, don't you always do a PSA first followed by a rectal?
I guess more importantly, what would the NBME do?