Psych section bank #52 and 53

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akimhaneul

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Really confused about this question...

Which technique was most likely used to measure increased neural activation of specific brain regions when viewing images of food?

MRI
FMRI
CT
PET

The answer is Fmri. Why not pet?





Based on the study results how is the relationship between inadequate sleep and hunger best described?

There is a direct cause and effect relationship between sleep and increased hunger
There is a positive correlation between hunger and inadequate sleep
There is evidence that inadequate sleep causes hunger
Ther is negative correlation between hunger and inadequate sleep

The passage involved experimental conditions. Is this why the answer is c instead of b?






Thanks!

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Which technique was most likely used to measure increased neural activation of specific brain regions when viewing images of food?

MRI
FMRI
CT
PET

The answer is Fmri. Why not pet?

PET has poorer spatial resolution than fMRI. Since you usually inject [18-F]-glucose into a patient and monitor where it goes, it's also a more invasive technique than fMRI and so it's much less likely to be used for this specific purpose.

Based on the study results how is the relationship between inadequate sleep and hunger best described?

There is a direct cause and effect relationship between sleep and increased hunger
There is a positive correlation between hunger and inadequate sleep
There is evidence that inadequate sleep causes hunger
Ther is negative correlation between hunger and inadequate sleep

The passage involved experimental conditions. Is this why the answer is c instead of b?

I'm not familiar with the question, but if the experimenters withheld sleep from some experimental group where all other variables are controlled and measured hunger levels and saw an effect, then this would evidence of causation since experiments are designed to measure causation, not correlation.
 
PET has poorer spatial resolution than fMRI. Since you usually inject [18-F]-glucose into a patient and monitor where it goes, it's also a more invasive technique than fMRI and so it's much less likely to be used for this specific purpose.



I'm not familiar with the question, but if the experimenters withheld sleep from some experimental group where all other variables are controlled and measured hunger levels and saw an effect, then this would evidence of causation since experiments are designed to measure causation, not correlation.

Thank you! Can you always conclude causation when you have experiments? Like you create certain conditions and you saw effect
 
Thank you! Can you always conclude causation when you have experiments? Like you create certain conditions and you saw effect

Experiments are designed to show causation. Generally, scientists use the bars of necessity and sufficiency to show causation. Necessity means that when you remove X, the effect is also removed. Thus, X is necessary for the effect. Sufficiency means that if you add X, the effect appears. Thus, X is sufficient to cause the effect.
 
Experiments are designed to show causation. Generally, scientists use the bars of necessity and sufficiency to show causation. Necessity means that when you remove X, the effect is also removed. Thus, X is necessary for the effect. Sufficiency means that if you add X, the effect appears. Thus, X is sufficient to cause the effect.
PET has poorer spatial resolution than fMRI. Since you usually inject [18-F]-glucose into a patient and monitor where it goes, it's also a more invasive technique than fMRI and so it's much less likely to be used for this specific purpose.



I'm not familiar with the question, but if the experimenters withheld sleep from some experimental group where all other variables are controlled and measured hunger levels and saw an effect, then this would evidence of causation since experiments are designed to measure causation, not correlation.

what would be a better example to show correlation then? A linear regression of their hunger ratings vs sleep deprivation?
 
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