Question about malignant hypertension

[eeeeee]

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Just got a UWorld question about the pathology of malignant HTN.

The correct answer was:

"onion-like concentric thickening of arteriolar walls" (which I know is correct)

but another option was:

"transmural inflammation of arterial wall with fibrinoid necrosis."

Wikipedia tells me that fibrinoid necrosis happens in malignant HTN. So why aren't both answers correct?

 

[MrBeauregard]

Please don't trust Wikipedia over UWorld.

Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis and fibrinoid necrosis are two completely different pathological processes.

 

[Go Ducks]

Just got a UWorld question about the pathology of malignant HTN.

The correct answer was:

"onion-like concentric thickening of arteriolar walls" (which I know is correct)

but another option was:

"transmural inflammation of arterial wall with fibrinoid necrosis."

Wikipedia tells me that fibrinoid necrosis happens in malignant HTN. So why aren't both answers correct?

"Transmural fibroid necrosis" is a buzz word for polyangitis nodosa. You were supposed to think of that when you saw the answer choice.

Of course stuff will overlap, especially clinical symptoms and histology, but it's all about the most common pathologic process and/or the buzz words when it comes to STEP. STEP is not about the real life answer. In real life, if you got diarrhea after eating fried rice, that diarrhea could be from any diarrhea-causing bacteria in the book. On STEP, it 100% must be b. cereus. In real life, if someone has hypertension that comes and goes, you would probably think about stress or medication non-compliance. On STEP, it is a pheochromocytoma.