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BRS and FA tells me that V is maximal at the bases.
Kaplan Physio Q bank tells me V is max at the apexes.
Is there any rational reason why Kaplan would say that? Or did they simply make a mistake?
Thanks!
Kaplan Physio Q bank tells me V is max at the apexes.
Is there any rational reason why Kaplan would say that? Or did they simply make a mistake?
Thanks!