- Joined
- Jul 9, 2005
- Messages
- 949
- Reaction score
- 145
OP is correct. When a CII script is filled (full or partial), it's ONE script. The rest of the quantity on that script is voided. So I understand his reasoning
However, in this instance, if it was the SAME doctor who originally prescribed the original prescription says it's fine, I would have filled it since he intended for the patient to get the #180 amount (and the patient's RX history is clean).
If it was a different doctor who prescribed the 2nd script, I wouldn't have filled it.
Again, use your judgement. Laws are laws, but sometimes you have to look at the patient. Your pharmacy didn't have the full quantity in stock, so you had to give the patient a partial. The doctor complied b/c I'm sure the patient needed it, and now they're simply requesting to get the rest of the amount.
However, in this instance, if it was the SAME doctor who originally prescribed the original prescription says it's fine, I would have filled it since he intended for the patient to get the #180 amount (and the patient's RX history is clean).
If it was a different doctor who prescribed the 2nd script, I wouldn't have filled it.
Again, use your judgement. Laws are laws, but sometimes you have to look at the patient. Your pharmacy didn't have the full quantity in stock, so you had to give the patient a partial. The doctor complied b/c I'm sure the patient needed it, and now they're simply requesting to get the rest of the amount.