It's for a test I have tomorrow.
The question I have is from the study guide on this: In children that express recessive genetic diseases, such as cystic fibrosis, it has been occasionally found that only one parent is heterozygous for the disease allele. In these cases, it has also been confirmed that the parents are the true biological parents of the affected child. Offer a genetic explanation for this observation.
My initial explanation was that the other parent could simply be homozygous for the disease and the child inherited a copy of the recessive allele from each parent but I feel like it's too simple.
Does it have something to do with X-linkage and the child having Turner Syndrome (or something else of that nature) or 2 nondisjunctions happened during meiosis so the child ended up with 2 copies of the recessive allele from one parent and 0 copies of the allele from the other?
Thanks
The question I have is from the study guide on this: In children that express recessive genetic diseases, such as cystic fibrosis, it has been occasionally found that only one parent is heterozygous for the disease allele. In these cases, it has also been confirmed that the parents are the true biological parents of the affected child. Offer a genetic explanation for this observation.
My initial explanation was that the other parent could simply be homozygous for the disease and the child inherited a copy of the recessive allele from each parent but I feel like it's too simple.
Does it have something to do with X-linkage and the child having Turner Syndrome (or something else of that nature) or 2 nondisjunctions happened during meiosis so the child ended up with 2 copies of the recessive allele from one parent and 0 copies of the allele from the other?
Thanks