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- May 6, 2009
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The scenario is:
blunt trauma pt with collar in place after negative CT C-spine
palpation of the c/s is non-tender
active turn of head to left causes midline pain and/or tenderness at C6 with no neuro effects (no paresthesias or pain in extremities or elsewhere)
alternate scenario with same choices below: neg CT c/s and midline tenderness at c6 on exam
Now there are two choices:
#1 remove to collar as the CT is neg and there are no neuro deficits on exam (again, no paresthesias or distal pain)
#2 discharge the patient in the collar and him return for re-eval later in trauma clinic - if same exam, then MRI; if neg exam, remove collar and no furhter imaging
option #3 of MRI from ED for is does not exist (if you really would do flex-ex, I guess that's an OK response)
I have seen respected attendings do both. Is there literature to support one over the other? Expert advice to support one over the other?
In my mind, it has always been if midline pain or tenderness on exam, then ligamentous injury is possible and the collar must not be removed unless there is an MRI...but I have nothing to back this up. I was presented with a counter arguement today that if the pain and/or tenderness is caused by a significant ligamentous injury, then the cord would be compromised on c-spine exam as evidenced by distal pain or paresthesias (or altered spinous process spacing on CT).
Any thoughts? Please direct me to some evidence: literature, expert opinion, etc.
HH
blunt trauma pt with collar in place after negative CT C-spine
palpation of the c/s is non-tender
active turn of head to left causes midline pain and/or tenderness at C6 with no neuro effects (no paresthesias or pain in extremities or elsewhere)
alternate scenario with same choices below: neg CT c/s and midline tenderness at c6 on exam
Now there are two choices:
#1 remove to collar as the CT is neg and there are no neuro deficits on exam (again, no paresthesias or distal pain)
#2 discharge the patient in the collar and him return for re-eval later in trauma clinic - if same exam, then MRI; if neg exam, remove collar and no furhter imaging
option #3 of MRI from ED for is does not exist (if you really would do flex-ex, I guess that's an OK response)
I have seen respected attendings do both. Is there literature to support one over the other? Expert advice to support one over the other?
In my mind, it has always been if midline pain or tenderness on exam, then ligamentous injury is possible and the collar must not be removed unless there is an MRI...but I have nothing to back this up. I was presented with a counter arguement today that if the pain and/or tenderness is caused by a significant ligamentous injury, then the cord would be compromised on c-spine exam as evidenced by distal pain or paresthesias (or altered spinous process spacing on CT).
Any thoughts? Please direct me to some evidence: literature, expert opinion, etc.
HH