Resolution 42 Question

[BigBank]

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I am currently a DO at ACGME, was looking at resolution 42 requirements since my family is from one of the states. I noticed that under the anesthesia pgy-1 requirements they require at least 3 months of anesthesia and 1 month of OB. I don't think any ACGME program has 3 months of anesthesia PGY-1 so im not sure how they expect people to meet this requirement.
I am more concerned about the OB requirement, my program does not have an OB rotation, will this stop me from getting approved? Does anyone have similar experiences they can share? Thanks a lot.

 

[Consigliere]

I wish I knew what the hell you were talking about.

 

[MikeMerk-MtS]

Do you mean CA-1 year?

 

[Corwin29]

Unless they changed something in the last 4yrs which is possible, I was in same situation as you, no ob and one month of anesthesia intern year, submitted everything and was approved, seemed like they had a low threshold to send it through. Good luck.

 

[deleted9493]

I applied under Resolution 42 two years ago and had numerous deficits from my ACGME intern year. I wrote the board explaining that I had done 3+ months of OB-related patient care and 2+ months of clinic medicine in Preop. Clinic throughout residency. They accepted these as covering my primary care requirements. I found a DO conference and attended, fulfilling the last remaining requirement that they gave me for AOA approval of my ACGME year. I couldn't have practiced in Michigan without doing this--->painful.

 

[Corwin29]

Yes, I had forgotten I did have to attend a osteopathic conference/cme as I wanted to practice in OK.

 

[BobBarker]

You don't need resolution 42 in Oklahoma. The osteopathic internship requirement is waived if you complete an ACGME residency. Same for Florida. Check out my posts in this old thread: http://forums.studentdoctor.net/threads/new-merger-and-intern-year-res-42.959994/