rickets/osteomalacia

[Fungi121]

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So I just did a question on Kaplan about a child with rickets, and they asked me which of the following he had---I narrowed it down to either "wide osteoid seams" or "increased osteoclast activity."

I understand why there is wide osteoid seams (Correct answer)--you don't have the calcium to mineralize the osteoid.

However, why is increased osteoclast activity incorrect? Kaplan didn't do a real nice job of explaining this point. I would think that with low Vit d = low calcium/phos = increase PTH = increase clast activity?

Can someone help me out?

 

[ChessMaster3000]

great question. I tried doing a little research and can't find an answer. It may be a mistake. No doubt, osteoid seams are practically pathognomonic for rickets/malacia, however, I dont know why there wouldnt be increase clast activity.