csmith1

Member
7+ Year Member
15+ Year Member
Jul 30, 2003
82
2
Houston
Visit site
Status
Chapter 4: Hemodynamic disorders

Q26 (p24): 58-yo female....left mastectomy w/ axillary lymph node dissection....develops marked swelling of her left arm that persists for months....arm is not tender or erythromatous and was not painful to move or touch. Afebrile.

Then you choose the most closely associated pathologic finding from a list of 15 items.

I picked 'Anasarca' for the general edema in her left arm due to decreased lympathic drainage.

Correct answer is 'Sacral pitting edema'. ???? Is this an error in keying or something? If not, I'd appreciate some enlightenment. FWIW, the explanation really says nothing about 'sacral pitting edema'...it just discusses diminished lymphatic drainage.

Thanks in advance.
 

Kalel

Membership Revoked
Removed
15+ Year Member
Feb 1, 2004
792
3
Metropolis
Visit site
Status
I think that the 'correct' answer choice is a typo. The answer should be pitting edema, but not sacral pitting edema. Left upper extremity pitting edema would have been more appropriate. I know that technically, anasarca means edema, but in medicine, anasarca is usually reserved for the generalize edema seen throughout the body caused by things like nephrotic syndrome or severe cardiac failure.
 

csmith1

Member
7+ Year Member
15+ Year Member
Jul 30, 2003
82
2
Houston
Visit site
Status
word

and thanks. i'm crossing 'sacral' out and moving on...
 
About the Ads