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Robbins Review of Path: Question

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csmith1

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Chapter 4: Hemodynamic disorders

Q26 (p24): 58-yo female....left mastectomy w/ axillary lymph node dissection....develops marked swelling of her left arm that persists for months....arm is not tender or erythromatous and was not painful to move or touch. Afebrile.

Then you choose the most closely associated pathologic finding from a list of 15 items.

I picked 'Anasarca' for the general edema in her left arm due to decreased lympathic drainage.

Correct answer is 'Sacral pitting edema'. ???? Is this an error in keying or something? If not, I'd appreciate some enlightenment. FWIW, the explanation really says nothing about 'sacral pitting edema'...it just discusses diminished lymphatic drainage.

Thanks in advance.
 

Kalel

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I think that the 'correct' answer choice is a typo. The answer should be pitting edema, but not sacral pitting edema. Left upper extremity pitting edema would have been more appropriate. I know that technically, anasarca means edema, but in medicine, anasarca is usually reserved for the generalize edema seen throughout the body caused by things like nephrotic syndrome or severe cardiac failure.
 
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