So there's a post in the DPM forum about a pharmacist refusing to fill a #30 Ambien script with 2 refills written by a DPM and I thought the responses there were interesting. What is your guys' take on the scenario?
I figure the best course would be for the RPh to contact the DPM if the diagnosis is in question to clarify the reason for the extended therapy rather than refuse the script outright. What do you think?I don't want to get into a flame war just seeking opinions. I have a Pt who has a significant foot injury and the DPM who is writing for ambien as needed for insomnia. We filled a couple of 2 week prescriptions for her but the Dr. has now written for 30 with 2 refills. I don't doubt the seriousness of her injury but she is not consistently filling any type of pain medication, narcotic or non-narcotic, no neuroleptics, no nsaids, just ambien from the DPM and phentermine from a different Dr. I declined to fill the Rx and the Dr. is upset. Am I being a butthead pharmacist from your point of view?