Had a patient the other night 61, hx of DM, HTN, HL, only complaint was painful midline back pain in the L4-L5 region; in the ED was tachy to low 100s, febrile to 101 and WBC 13.3. No IVDU, no procedures, no neuro findings. tried to find an alternative source for her infection, but the common stuff was all negative (cxr, ua, skin). She was ill appearing, but not toxic appearing. Spinal Epidural Abscess was on our differential, so we tried to get away with a contrast CT; negative. Now, we wanted to push forward with an MRI as this is often quoted as the definitive study. At our institution, we need radiology approval for emergent MRIs, and talked to the radiologist, he saw no reason for it as the CT with contrast was negative which he said was "highly sensitive to epidural abscess." I tried to find some literature, but couldn't find anything specifically comparing anything; only lots of review articles all saying the MRI > CT, some said that CT + myelography = MRI. Anyone know of any studies or literature that had looked at this? Are the new generation CTs considered in this?
This was a nice (free) review article I came across:
http://qjmed.oxfordjournals.org/content/101/1/1.abstract
This was a nice (free) review article I came across:
http://qjmed.oxfordjournals.org/content/101/1/1.abstract