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So this debate came up with residents and an attending during didactics. Basically, Stahl taught us that SSRIs different greatly not only in their pharmacokinetics and dynamics but also their affinity for specific neurotransmitters, or that some are more, "activating" than others.
At any rate, we have a new attending who made the bold statement that he used to believe this, but clinically he has noticed little to no difference in SSRIs other than pharmakinetic/dynamic properties and that the common-held belief that one is more, "activating" than another is hogwash inferred from certain patients who simply have had a different response that could have occurred with any SSRI.
I mean to fiddle around on pubmed and see what studies are out there investigating this sort of thing but did not have time, and I'm not going back to the hospital on the weekend.
Thoughts? Are they really that different? Is the difference clinically significant? Are the "differences" simply individual-specific reactions or responses?
At any rate, we have a new attending who made the bold statement that he used to believe this, but clinically he has noticed little to no difference in SSRIs other than pharmakinetic/dynamic properties and that the common-held belief that one is more, "activating" than another is hogwash inferred from certain patients who simply have had a different response that could have occurred with any SSRI.
I mean to fiddle around on pubmed and see what studies are out there investigating this sort of thing but did not have time, and I'm not going back to the hospital on the weekend.
Thoughts? Are they really that different? Is the difference clinically significant? Are the "differences" simply individual-specific reactions or responses?