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I just found this out a few weeks ago while studying for USMLE Step III.
And I'm a bit ashamed that I found it out from a test question.
The question from Blueprints for USMLE Step III-Internal Medicine (their question book for the exam, not their general IM book) had a clinical scenario where a psychiatric patient had all the sx of hyperprolactinemia (galactorrhea, decreased sexual desire) and the question asked what was the most likely cause of the effect? The prolactin level was about 50 (I think).
Yeah well I figured I had this nipped in the bud.
The answer obviously was going to be an antipsychotic....
After all prolactinomas usually push prolactin levels above 100, usually over 150.
Atypicals and typicals as we know block dopamine which in turn increase prolactine.
So I check the answer choices--prolactinoma, yeah, expected that wrong answer to be there, but THERE WAS NO ANTIPSYCHOTIC IN THE ANSWER CHOICES.
Well guess what, psyche resident got the psyche question wrong. The answer was fluoxetine.
I never read about SSRIs decreasing dopamine, so I double checked various sources and yes it does do this.
So that got me thinking....
Was the mechanism of sexual dysfunction and SSRIs every established? I never heard of a specific explanation.
Is it because of decreased dopamine? That would make sense. Decreased dopamine --> increased prolactin --> sexual dysfunction.
And I'm a bit ashamed that I found it out from a test question.
The question from Blueprints for USMLE Step III-Internal Medicine (their question book for the exam, not their general IM book) had a clinical scenario where a psychiatric patient had all the sx of hyperprolactinemia (galactorrhea, decreased sexual desire) and the question asked what was the most likely cause of the effect? The prolactin level was about 50 (I think).
Yeah well I figured I had this nipped in the bud.
The answer obviously was going to be an antipsychotic....
After all prolactinomas usually push prolactin levels above 100, usually over 150.
Atypicals and typicals as we know block dopamine which in turn increase prolactine.
So I check the answer choices--prolactinoma, yeah, expected that wrong answer to be there, but THERE WAS NO ANTIPSYCHOTIC IN THE ANSWER CHOICES.
Well guess what, psyche resident got the psyche question wrong. The answer was fluoxetine.
I never read about SSRIs decreasing dopamine, so I double checked various sources and yes it does do this.
So that got me thinking....
Was the mechanism of sexual dysfunction and SSRIs every established? I never heard of a specific explanation.
Is it because of decreased dopamine? That would make sense. Decreased dopamine --> increased prolactin --> sexual dysfunction.