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I have conflicting sources or more likely I'm not understanding the reasoning, hopefully someone can help!
The question is comparing a new drug "X" with control medication to see if drug X is more effective at reducing cancer.
So our 2x2 looks like this: Cancer+ drug X= 10pts Cancer+ Control= 25 (So boxes A and B are 10 and 25 respectively) No cancer+ drug X= 990pts No cancer+ control= 975pts (C and D respectively)
Now in first aid the equation for ARR is c/c+d - a/a+b
But they solved the equation by subtracting the event rate in the tx group (10/1000) - from the event rate in control group (25/1000). Thus doing 0.025-0.01= o.o15%
So essentially they did b/b+d - a/a+c
So, Im just confused how they got the absolute risk reduction equation.
The question is comparing a new drug "X" with control medication to see if drug X is more effective at reducing cancer.
So our 2x2 looks like this: Cancer+ drug X= 10pts Cancer+ Control= 25 (So boxes A and B are 10 and 25 respectively) No cancer+ drug X= 990pts No cancer+ control= 975pts (C and D respectively)
Now in first aid the equation for ARR is c/c+d - a/a+b
But they solved the equation by subtracting the event rate in the tx group (10/1000) - from the event rate in control group (25/1000). Thus doing 0.025-0.01= o.o15%
So essentially they did b/b+d - a/a+c
So, Im just confused how they got the absolute risk reduction equation.