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Gents,
We're being introduced to cholinergic pharm right now. I have a question regarding "Phase I Depolarizing blockade". I just want to be sure that I clearly understand this mechanism.
According to our notes, when SuCh binds AChR's there's a brief period of depolarization that can cause fasciculations. However, once equillibrium sets in, the action of SuCh is such that the RMP is moved closer to zero.
(Here's where I feel our notes are lacking). It explains the fact that with the new RMP of zero, any constitutive release of ACh can not initiate an AP.
No problem there.
However, mechanistically, my question is this... At RMP=0 is it the fact that there simply is no longer a driving force for Na+ to rush into the cell that causes this "inaction"??
Our notes go on to suggest that stimulation of motor nerves at this time will further decrease the potential difference, and thus would intensify the phase I depolarized blockade.
Is the deal that since the RMP has already exceeded (for a prolonged period of time) the traditional threshold of -40 mV (via SuCh), any minor inrush of Na+ at the new RMP of 0 simply will not cause an AP for some reason, but would rather intensify the blockade by further increasing the RMP to a more positive #????
And if so, wouldn't this depolarization be enough to open V-gated Ca2+ channels, thereby causing a contraction anyway??
Any clarification would be great.
Thanks,
cf
We're being introduced to cholinergic pharm right now. I have a question regarding "Phase I Depolarizing blockade". I just want to be sure that I clearly understand this mechanism.
According to our notes, when SuCh binds AChR's there's a brief period of depolarization that can cause fasciculations. However, once equillibrium sets in, the action of SuCh is such that the RMP is moved closer to zero.
(Here's where I feel our notes are lacking). It explains the fact that with the new RMP of zero, any constitutive release of ACh can not initiate an AP.
No problem there.
However, mechanistically, my question is this... At RMP=0 is it the fact that there simply is no longer a driving force for Na+ to rush into the cell that causes this "inaction"??
Our notes go on to suggest that stimulation of motor nerves at this time will further decrease the potential difference, and thus would intensify the phase I depolarized blockade.
Is the deal that since the RMP has already exceeded (for a prolonged period of time) the traditional threshold of -40 mV (via SuCh), any minor inrush of Na+ at the new RMP of 0 simply will not cause an AP for some reason, but would rather intensify the blockade by further increasing the RMP to a more positive #????
And if so, wouldn't this depolarization be enough to open V-gated Ca2+ channels, thereby causing a contraction anyway??
Any clarification would be great.
Thanks,
cf