TBR Bio Hardy Weinberg

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dattebayo1

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Hi everyone,

I have a question regarding TBR Bio Ch. 9, Passage V, #25.

The questions states: What percentage of females would be expected to exhibit red-green color blindness, if one genetic locus were involved?
a) 0.04%
b) 0.12%
c) 0.36%
d) 0.64%

The passage states that 1% of the female population are affected, 15% of the female population are carriers, and 8% of males are affected. Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait.

The explanation says that we find the answer by using q^2 = (0.08)(0.08) = 0.64%

So, in order to come to the correct answer, we have to use the male percentage since males only have one X chromosome and thus, one genetic locus? Later the passage discusses protan and deutan defects, which led me to believe that the genes responsible for red color and green color vision defects were on different locations on the chromosome. I didn't realize the answer could be reached so easily by using the original male percentage given.

Is anyone else familiar with this passage? If so, how did you not fall into the trap of using irrelevant information? Am I over complicating HW?

Thanks in advance!
 
Hi everyone,

I have a question regarding TBR Bio Ch. 9, Passage V, #25.

The questions states: What percentage of females would be expected to exhibit red-green color blindness, if one genetic locus were involved?
a) 0.04%
b) 0.12%
c) 0.36%
d) 0.64%

The passage states that 1% of the female population are affected, 15% of the female population are carriers, and 8% of males are affected. Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait.

The explanation says that we find the answer by using q^2 = (0.08)(0.08) = 0.64%

So, in order to come to the correct answer, we have to use the male percentage since males only have one X chromosome and thus, one genetic locus? Later the passage discusses protan and deutan defects, which led me to believe that the genes responsible for red color and green color vision defects were on different locations on the chromosome. I didn't realize the answer could be reached so easily by using the original male percentage given.

Is anyone else familiar with this passage? If so, how did you not fall into the trap of using irrelevant information? Am I over complicating HW?

Thanks in advance!

I vaguely remember this. Not sure if I reasoned correctly, but I think that the percent of males affected is also a reasonable estimate of the frequency of the recessive gene in the population (since, as you mentioned, normal males have only one x chromosome). q, of course stands for the recessive gene, so you plug .08 into the equation.

Again I'm not SURE that's correct.

(I don't really understand how you came up with the part about deutans being on a different area of the chromosome or I would try to help with that too.)
 
Last edited:
The questions states: What percentage of females would be expected to exhibit red-green color blindness, if one genetic locus were involved?
a) 0.04%
b) 0.12%
c) 0.36%
d) 0.64%

The passage states that 1% of the female population are affected, 15% of the female population are carriers, and 8% of males are affected. Red-green color blindness is a sex-linked recessive trait.

The explanation says that we find the answer by using q^2 = (0.08)(0.08) = 0.64%

Thanks in advance!

Isn't the question asking something you said was stated directly in the passage? I must be oversimplifying but "exhibiting" and "affected" are the same thing aren't they?

0.64 is close to 1%.........maybe?
 
They give you hardy weinberg equation.
Use it if you can do it quickly.

In general everything else is detritus.

Quantitative > Qualitative
 
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