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In TBR Physics Chapter 1 Question 17, the answer states that mass of the cart and acceleration is not related. However, don't we get an inverse relationship between mass and acceleration from F=ma? That's what I thought at least...I understand the whole "if you throw a bowling ball and a feather from the top of a cliff they will strike the ground at the same time" thing but i'm confused after reading this question why mass and acceleration aren't related when F=ma shows an inverse relationship...
Help?
EDIT: After relooking at the question, is this the reason why? F=ma but because all the carts of different masses have the same initial velocity, the only way that could happen would be to push the bigger carts with more force in order for them to all have the same initial velocity, which in this case, would allow the acceleration to be constant throughout all the carts???
Help?
EDIT: After relooking at the question, is this the reason why? F=ma but because all the carts of different masses have the same initial velocity, the only way that could happen would be to push the bigger carts with more force in order for them to all have the same initial velocity, which in this case, would allow the acceleration to be constant throughout all the carts???
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