Could bipolar disorder be promulgated by caregivers who only responded to children when the child was displaying great stress and discontentment, or when the child was delightful, cheery and upbeat, and perhaps would be reinforcing the tendency to display those types of behavior in order to get the affection/conflict resolution a bipolar individual needed?
I don't know much about behaviorism or bipolar disorder, and how/ if these two relate so I was wondering if someone out there who knew could fill me in on why or why not this is the case.
I've asked this question before on different sites, but I didn't really get a satisfactory explanation. Thanks in advance for your answer. (Also, I really just want to know if I should stop trying to think about the roots of disorders so hard as if I could even be on to something that hasn't been looked at already, since I'm still an undergrad. Thanks, again.)
I don't know much about behaviorism or bipolar disorder, and how/ if these two relate so I was wondering if someone out there who knew could fill me in on why or why not this is the case.
I've asked this question before on different sites, but I didn't really get a satisfactory explanation. Thanks in advance for your answer. (Also, I really just want to know if I should stop trying to think about the roots of disorders so hard as if I could even be on to something that hasn't been looked at already, since I'm still an undergrad. Thanks, again.)