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So the way Kaplan explains Parkinson dz, is that this is the dz in direct basal ganglion pathway.
Lack of DA --> suppressed direct pathway --> suppressed motor cortex --> rigidity
Which all makes sense. However, how do you explain tremor? Isn't this counter intuitive if Dopamine plays a role in facilitying direct pathway which facilitates movement, such as tremor?
Also, with cerebellum problem you get intention tremor, but with Parkinson dz, you get resting tremor, how come?
Many thanks in advance.
Lack of DA --> suppressed direct pathway --> suppressed motor cortex --> rigidity
Which all makes sense. However, how do you explain tremor? Isn't this counter intuitive if Dopamine plays a role in facilitying direct pathway which facilitates movement, such as tremor?
Also, with cerebellum problem you get intention tremor, but with Parkinson dz, you get resting tremor, how come?
Many thanks in advance.