Hey,
I can read that in order for cancer to develop, one must have both alleles for a tumor suppressor gene mutated. This is apparently not true of oncogenes, according to the same source. The examples that were given were Li-Fraumeni syndrome and Lynch syndrome. But isn't Li-Fraumeni syndrome due to a mutation (observe a as in singular) in the gene coding for the tumor suppresor p53? Isn't this a paradox?
The source is First Aid 2016 (step 1) by the way.
I can read that in order for cancer to develop, one must have both alleles for a tumor suppressor gene mutated. This is apparently not true of oncogenes, according to the same source. The examples that were given were Li-Fraumeni syndrome and Lynch syndrome. But isn't Li-Fraumeni syndrome due to a mutation (observe a as in singular) in the gene coding for the tumor suppresor p53? Isn't this a paradox?
The source is First Aid 2016 (step 1) by the way.