I actually agree with priapism on this one... 😱
50 posts on T#3... 😱
😱
Its better than the 5 miliion replies to the Cycloketocaine... (NCAA Football rambling thread) which has nothing to do with pharmacy.....
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I actually agree with priapism on this one... 😱
50 posts on T#3... 😱
😱
Its better than the 5 miliion replies to the Cycloketocaine... (NCAA Football rambling thread) which has nothing to do with pharmacy.....
Well, you are right on that one. I am the creator of this thread, but like you say, it is actually relevant to pharmacy and not something about your first big purchase, which has far more replies than this one. 🙂
Why do slight differences in functional groups on the otherwise similar looking molecule have such a dramatic effect in drug potency? For example, I've read that diacetylmorphine, which is heroin, and contains a similar structure to codeine and morphine, is far more potent than codeine. I obviously knew this, but why does the presence of those two acetyl groups, CH3CO, have any difference in potency? What do those acetyl groups do to make heroin more potent?
Heroin can cross the blood brain barrier (nonpolar), morphine can not (polar). Heroin is metabolized to morphine and can not diffuse out across the BBB again; therefore, longer, more intense DOA of heroin.
Heroin can cross the blood brain barrier (nonpolar), morphine can not (polar). Heroin is metabolized to morphine and can not diffuse out across the BBB again; therefore, longer, more intense DOA of heroin.
Morphine can not cross the blood brain barrier? I mean, pharmacology changes rapidly, but this sounds like a major break through. How does it cause analgesia if it can't penetrate into the CNS? I am ready to be intrigued. Does this mean morphine does not cause respiratory depression?
I'm not a pharmacy student just yet, so correct me if i'm mistaken, but I do believe morphine causes respiratory depression because like other opiates, it binds to opioid receptors such as the mu, kappa, and delta in the CNS. Some of these receptor variations and receptor subunits do give rise to RD upon activation by the drug molecule. Also, codeine, which is a prodrug of morphine, is said to cause RD. Therefore, morphine should cause RD. I'm also wondering the same thing about the analgesic effects of morphine if it can't penetrate the CNS. How does it bind to opioid receptors that are mostly located in the brain and spinal cord if it can't cross the BBB?
Morphine can not cross the blood brain barrier? I mean, pharmacology changes rapidly, but this sounds like a major break through. How does it cause analgesia if it can't penetrate into the CNS? I am ready to be intrigued. Does this mean morphine does not cause respiratory depression?
Apparently no one on this board senses sarcasm. I guess I will have to revert back to the good old days and resort to personal attacks on less than intelligent posts.
Morphine can not cross the blood brain barrier? I mean, pharmacology changes rapidly, but this sounds like a major break through. How does it cause analgesia if it can't penetrate into the CNS? I am ready to be intrigued. Does this mean morphine does not cause respiratory depression?
For example, I've read that diacetylmorphine, which is heroin, and contains a similar structure to codeine and morphine, is far more potent than codeine. I obviously knew this, but why does the presence of those two acetyl groups, CH3CO, have any difference in potency? What do those acetyl groups do to make heroin more potent?
hahahahah I love it. You need to post more. What are you planning to do post residency?
Apparently no one on this board senses sarcasm. I guess I will have to revert back to the good old days and resort to personal attacks on less than intelligent posts.
I will be doing what all young Pharmacists who just can't get enough of the 65 hour work weeks and low salary do post residency: another residency.
Excellent, what field?
sarcasm on the internet is hard to interpret.. most of it is followed by some sort of smiley 😛
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