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To savy statisticians:
Say I increase the p value from .05 to .1, will the risk of type I error increase AND the risk of type II error decrease?
It sounds logical, but I remember an NBME practice test I took had a question similar to this, where the answers were EITHER increase likelihood of type I or decrease likelihood of type II.
Say I increase the p value from .05 to .1, will the risk of type I error increase AND the risk of type II error decrease?
It sounds logical, but I remember an NBME practice test I took had a question similar to this, where the answers were EITHER increase likelihood of type I or decrease likelihood of type II.