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Any cardio experts out there?
So far I've come across two questions in QBank on Libman-Sacks endocarditis.
The first one gave a vignette of a pt who clearly had SLE, then asked about the heart pathology (no additional information was given relating to heart sounds or CXRs, etc.). I limited the answers down to aortic regurgitation and mitral stenosis, and mitral STENOSIS was correct. That being said, I was shocked because we always hear that 99% of MSs are rheumatic fever-induced.
Moving along..
The second question came down to a left-sided systolic murmur. Keeping in mind that I had encountered mitral stenosis with the previous question and that MSs rarely occur from anything other than rheumatic fever, I figured there MUST be a proclivity for the Libman-Sacks-induced verrucae (on both sides of the valve) to cause STENOSIS. The answer choices were mitral regurgitation and aortic stenosis, so I went with the aortic stenosis, particularly because I've read on PubMed that LS endocarditis can occur on the mitral AND/OR aortic valves. Anyway, the answer was mitral regurgitation.
I am left with the impression that USMLE Step1 is focused on specifically mitral valve involvement in LS endocarditis, versus aortic pathology, irrespective of whether the particular valvular changes demonstrate incompetence versus stenosis.
This concerns me because although LS endocarditis may be "classically" mitral (with regurgitation that could potentially progress to stenosis), I would still think that MR > AR > AS > MS.
Does anyone have any thoughts about this stuff?
So far I've come across two questions in QBank on Libman-Sacks endocarditis.
The first one gave a vignette of a pt who clearly had SLE, then asked about the heart pathology (no additional information was given relating to heart sounds or CXRs, etc.). I limited the answers down to aortic regurgitation and mitral stenosis, and mitral STENOSIS was correct. That being said, I was shocked because we always hear that 99% of MSs are rheumatic fever-induced.
Moving along..
The second question came down to a left-sided systolic murmur. Keeping in mind that I had encountered mitral stenosis with the previous question and that MSs rarely occur from anything other than rheumatic fever, I figured there MUST be a proclivity for the Libman-Sacks-induced verrucae (on both sides of the valve) to cause STENOSIS. The answer choices were mitral regurgitation and aortic stenosis, so I went with the aortic stenosis, particularly because I've read on PubMed that LS endocarditis can occur on the mitral AND/OR aortic valves. Anyway, the answer was mitral regurgitation.
I am left with the impression that USMLE Step1 is focused on specifically mitral valve involvement in LS endocarditis, versus aortic pathology, irrespective of whether the particular valvular changes demonstrate incompetence versus stenosis.
This concerns me because although LS endocarditis may be "classically" mitral (with regurgitation that could potentially progress to stenosis), I would still think that MR > AR > AS > MS.
Does anyone have any thoughts about this stuff?