Basically, vapor-pressure depression as I understand it can be explained as follows:
Lets say you have a pure solvent X, which has a vapor pressure of 1000 torr.
Now you add either a non-volatile solute or a solute with a lower vapor pressure. In the case of the non-volatile solute, the vapor pressure of the solution now decreases, because there is less surface area of the solvent exposed so less solvent molecules will exist in the vapor phase.
This will follow raoults law which is P = XP0 where X is the mole fraction of the solvent, and P0 is the vapor pressure of the pure solvent.
If the solute added is volitile, then the equation becomes P = XP0 + (1-X)P1 where P1 is the vapor pressure of the solute (this is for binary solutions, which I believe is all you'll have to worry about on the mcat).
To follow the example, lets say the mole fraction of the solvent is .95. With the non-volatile solute the vapor pressure becomes .95*1000 = 950 torr. If we assume the solute is volatile with a pure vapor pressure of 500, then the pressure becomes P = .95*1000 + .05*500 = 975 torr.
Am I being clear?
As an aside, 1000 torr is a very high vapor pressure. Atmospheric pressure is 760 torr. If the vapor pressure is higher than atmospheric pressure the solution would boil.