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See larger images below.
thoughts?
Slow atrial fibrillation with remarkable low voltage in V1.thoughts?
Why would a junctional rhythm be irregular?This is a junctional escape rhythm although it would be nice to have a 12 lead to see all of the vectors.
Why would a junctional rhythm be irregular?
When the AV junction becomes the pacemaker the rhythm is usually regular and varies in morphology according to the level at which it originates (high versus low junctional rhythm).Are you implying that a junctional rhythm or complex is always or usually regular?
When the AV junction becomes the pacemaker the rhythm is usually regular and varies in morphology according to the level at which it originates (high versus low junctional rhythm).
It is possible to have junctional premature beats that could cause pseudo irregular appearance.
The EKG in question appears irregularly irregular to me and the simplest explanation to that would be A fib.
Can not be certain though since the rest of the EKG is missing and the quality is very poor.
The low voltage in V1 is interesting though.
You guys are smoking crack.
Its too small to call. We can make guesses, like you are doing, but its too small for me.
Get 12 lead and start treatment.
What if the dude jogged into pre-op for his trigger finger release and his vitals were:
hr: per ECG
BP: 133/87
rr: 25 (kind of up because of his jog in)
t: 99.0 (kind of up because of his jog in)
You guys are smoking crack.
Its too small to call. We can make guesses, like you are doing, but its too small for me.
Get 12 lead and start treatment.
It's crank for the gentile, if you don't mind. Crack is so 80's.
See larger images below.
Clear P waves, lengthening PR interval, then dropped beat with recovery. No PVC's that I can see (and I would know cause I have em and the friggen suck).
Wait, I'm wrong. I dunno WTF that is.
Now it looks more like sinus brady-arrhythmia with irregular junctional or atrial escape beats.Ok I've posted the sequence of events above. No 12 lead ekg available. BP did continue to decrease to 60/30, isoproterenol and transcutaneous pacing initiated. Why would this happen in a pt with heart transplant after adrenalectomy for pheo resection?
Well, I'm not seeing any good P waves. Looks like it progressed to an idioventricular rhythm, but the QRS is narrow too. Maybe a-fib with slow ventric response.
I would imagine that in an orthotopic transplant, your loss of cardiac accelerators probably contributed to this.
Just my (somewhat educated) guess.
-copro
Now it looks more like sinus brady-arrhythmia with irregular junctional or atrial escape beats.
Sudden withdrawal of cathecolamine chronotropic efects on the transplanted heart after pheo resection is the likely cause.
Maybe not high enough though because this is a heart that was accustomed to high concentrations of catecholamines and the beta receptors are less sensitive.Levels were checked post op and were still high.
Yeah loss of cardiac accelerator fibers likely contributed to this, but the other issue is that tranplanted hearts are dependent on circulating catecholamines for sympathetic stimulation. After resection of the pheo, it was surmised that levels of these were low. However, when checked they were still about 200% of normal and only decreased to 150% of normal after two weeks post resection.
Maybe not high enough though because this is a heart that was accustomed to high concentrations of catecholamines and the beta receptors are less sensitive.
Beta blockers given pre or intra op could be to blame as well.
The low voltage in V1 I guess could be explained by abnormal axis of the transplanted heart but needs to be clarified.
😕No beta blockers given. Only meds pt was on preoperatively were cardura and norvasc for htn control.
😕
No alpha or beta blockade before Pheo resection?
Cardura + Norvasc: 2 calcium chanel blockers, are you sure?
tough, do you know what the catecholamine levels were presurgery (i.e. were they greater than 200% normal)? It is possible that persistent supranormal levels of catecholamines (i.e. much greater than 200% normal) were present and that downregulation of beta adrenergic receptors has occurred in this transplant heart. In that event, which I have seen before with heart transplant patients, what you experienced with this patient is not altogether unusual or unexpected.
I had a patient with a heart transplant and a pheo producing 5 times the normal amount of catecholamines go aystolic 2 hours after the removal of the pheo, brought back on Isuprel gtt, then had to be weaned off Isuprel over the next three weeks, but it worked.
Alternatively, you have to work up the heart for ischemic events as well. Epinephrine and norepinephrine increase coronary blood flow as well as lead to a favorable redistribution of flow to the flow sensitive endocardial regions. A heart that has been accustomed to high levels of catecholamines could be adversely affected by even a small decrease in circulating levels.
Good points. In review of her labs, 5 months prior to admission, her levels were 5 times of normal and a week before 3 times of normal.
Something I read: "Anticholinesterases normally act indirectly on the myocardium, and should have no HR effects on the denervated heart. According to recent data, however, neostigmine can induce bradycardia via a direct activation of cholinergic receptors on cardiac ganglionic cells, causing release of acetylcholine from their nerve terminals."
Utsouthwester,
I don't really understand your logic. You like nimbex because it breaks down itself. But what is the benefit of that in a pt with a heart transplant and normal working kidneys and liver? It's not like nimbex will be shorter than rocuronium in this scenario. Probably you will end up reversing both if the pt still has some fade. I understand nimbex in the setting of liver kidney failure, but not as a drug to avoid reversal.
My point is that if timed right, I can minimize or avoid reversal altogether, especially in the transplanted heart patient. Neostigmine's effects are effects that I would rather my patients not have to experience.
All of the steroidal NMB's can have a residual effect hours after the last dose is given in even healthy young patients.
I use Nimbex because it is self-limiting and if timed right requires little or no reversal.
Case(s) in point today: 3 gastric bands and one bypass. Bands got 8 mg Nimbex up front, bypass got 12 mg. End of the case (1 hour for the bands, 1.5 for the bypass), no reversal needed. Two 400 pounders, a 370 pounder, and a 278 pounder all with OSA, two with asthma, one with mild AS and history of one episode of CHF, all awoke perfectly and without hypersalivation from the neostigmine, tachycardia and hypertension from the glycopyrrolate, etc. These effects can be controlled (esmolol, labetalol, etc.), but I didn't have to use 2 reversal agents plus a beta blocker on these patients. Just let them wake up with the Nimbex gone or in the last stages of breaking down.
For all of my hearts, regardless of their liver or kidney function, I use Nimbex up front and possibly before CPB if it is a slow surgeon (have seen two patients shiver on CPB), then let it ride to the end. Since most of my hearts are fasttracked, it is great to not have to fight a sudden spike in HR/BP, etc. and have the patient still wake up smoothly and with intact muscle strength.
How you intubating these folks UT?
How you intubating these folks UT?