There was an NBME 7 question about why cox 2 increases clot risk... I got the question wrong. I can't seem to find a conclusive answer in any review text, but searching through some stuff online leads me to believe that its because COX-2 block doesn't block TXA as much. Is there a reason for this? I.e. is there a concept here or is this just a fact I need to memorize? I would appreciate any insight you might have. By the way, what WAS the right answer to that NBME 7 question?