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From what I have seen, pain docs are hit or miss as far as putting local in interlaminar injections. But some local in tfesis seems much more common...why is that?
Is the argument that with the interlaminar injection, so little of the local is going to actually be contacting the interface between the bulging disc and the nerve root... Whereas in tfesi you are literally depositing the local right on the irritated nerve?
Or does have it more have to do with the fact that inadvertent intrathecal injections would be more likely in interlaminar and less likely in tfesis?
Thanks ahead of time!
Is the argument that with the interlaminar injection, so little of the local is going to actually be contacting the interface between the bulging disc and the nerve root... Whereas in tfesi you are literally depositing the local right on the irritated nerve?
Or does have it more have to do with the fact that inadvertent intrathecal injections would be more likely in interlaminar and less likely in tfesis?
Thanks ahead of time!