Or it could mean you uphold the teachings of the Roman Catholic church? The term behaviors was used, not person. Think about it.
So what would otherwise be labeled as bigotry is morally neutral because groupthink makes it all ok?
Or it could mean you uphold the teachings of the Roman Catholic church? The term behaviors was used, not person. Think about it.
It sounds like we pretty much agree -- that working with queer clients and working with substance-abusing clients are both important training topics, and that anyone who doesn't want to work with either of these populations out of personal animus has a huge competence problem. Does that sound about right?
So what would otherwise be labeled as bigotry is morally neutral because groupthink makes it all ok?
I keep hearing how if someone isn't comfortable working with an LGBT client they would just refer them. What happens when you have been seeing this client for 9 sessions and you build enough trust where they come out for the first time to anyone and they pick you? I've had that happen. So all of sudden I say, "Sorry we can't work together anymore." How does an anti-gay handle that? Think of the implications for rejecting that person in that moment of their life.
So what would otherwise be labeled as bigotry is morally neutral because groupthink makes it all ok?
It could be both. I happen to be very passionate about this area and think there are a lot of incompetent psychologists when it comes to addiction that don't refer when they should.
Am i bigot if i dont agree with the behavior of premartial sex, too? Give it a rest fellas...no one has to agree with anyone's behavior. Doesnt mean I am an incompetent therapist. Although I dont do much therapist these days anyway.
For those saying that a competent clinician can ethically refuse to work with gay clients, what should happen in this situation? Should the therapist refer the client? Work with the client, but refuse to discuss sexuality? Discuss sexuality, but tell the client that he/she believes that the client's sexual behavior is wrong? Flee to Brazil with a suitcase full of money?
I don't call it bigotry to be Catholic or to find gay sex disturbing or upsetting. I do call it bigotry to let this affect your gay-sex-having clients. Only you know whether you've ever let this happen.
Depends, yes. no. no, but honesty about your inability (if it truly is) to provide competent care in good faith can be provided. It is not going to be easy. Clinical work generally isnt.
Well..exactly, which is why a support the right to refer in these situations. Isn't this what the thread is about, and what everybody around here seems to be against? Maybe you're not, I cant keep up with all the players here.
Let me clarify -- I'm putting referral in the category of "letting this affect your clients." Sometimes it's not possible to refer. Sometimes it could be harmful to refer, as in the case of a client you've worked with for years, or with a client who has few other treatment options. This is why I don't think it's possible to categorically refuse to work with any gay clients and still act ethically.
Let me clarify -- I'm putting referral in the category of "letting this affect your clients." Sometimes it's not possible to refer. Sometimes it could be harmful to refer, as in the case of a client you've worked with for years, or with a client who has few other treatment options. This is why I don't think it's possible to categorically refuse to work with any gay clients and still act ethically.
Am i bigot if i dont agree with the behavior of premartial sex, too? Give it a rest fellas...no one has to agree with anyone's behavior. Doesnt mean I am an incompetent therapist. Although I dont do much therapist these days anyway.
I'd have a hard time finding a specific part of the Ethics Code that would be violated if a clinician decided to discontinue services with one of their long-term patients. If they are stable (not actively suicidal/homicidal), you provide them with a number of viable referrals, etc....is that really an instance where it isn't possible to refer? It may not be ideal for the patient, but it should still be well within your ethical (and legal) obligation as a psychologist.
The second part of your quote...that is a bit trickier. I'll leave that for others.
As an aside, when people say they do not belive in "organized religion" what are are they really saying/really mean?
I have never understood what that means, nor why, when not "organized" all the sudden faith becomes much more plausible to them? A central feature of the christian faith, as i was raised, is in fellowship, and power using that faith to serve others...as a group.
I'd have a hard time finding a specific part of the Ethics Code that would be violated if a clinician decided to discontinue services with one of their long-term patients. If they are stable (not actively suicidal/homicidal), you provide them with a number of viable referrals, etc....is that really an instance where it isn't possible to refer? It may not be ideal for the patient, but it should still be well within your ethical (and legal) obligation as a psychologist.
The second part of your quote...that is a bit trickier. I'll leave that for others.
But we're talking specifically about a client referred because he/she is gay, not for other reasons. Picture that. You work for a few months with a client, say. Client tells you he's gay. You tell him you can't work with him anymore because he's gay. How is that ethical?
I don't really think people should use clients as a way of "working through" heavyset biases--because some of that process could probably negatively affect the client, and that's not fair to them.
+1
earlier when i a biased individual having organic exposure to those they are biased against in the therapeutic professions, i was referring to individuals that they work with, not their clients.
Any therapist working through their issues during a client's session is absolutely out of bounds.
As an aside, when people say they do not belive in "organized religion" what are are they really saying/really mean?
I have never understood what that means, nor why, when not "organized" all the sudden faith becomes much more plausible to them? A central feature of the christian faith, as I was raised, is in fellowship, and the power using that faith to serve others...as a group. If you are not "organized" do you not believe in formal worship? I don't even know how this word work if you claim to be believe in the christian faith?
It's not, but if that means you're going to turn the sessions into conversion therapy or act in hostile ways towards the client based on this new information, referring out seems like the far lesser of the two evils, no?
I don't really think people should use clients as a way of "working through" heavyset biases--because some of that process could probably negatively affect the client, and that's not fair to them.
I hear the argument for not wanting people that are anti-LGBT to treat LGBT people. That makes sense to me.
I guess I'm still confused as to why being oppressive to a person of minority status is something some of you are defending.
I hear the argument for not wanting people that are anti-LGBT to treat LGBT people. That makes sense to me.
I guess I'm still confused as to why being oppressive to a person of minority status is something some of you are defending. Tell me again why it's okay to allow someone to be denied your services if they are LGBT but not if they are a person of color? I just don't see how you can justify one but not the other.
The more that gay people are accepted in the wider society, the more some religious groups will fall back on a perceived first amendment right to discriminate against this select group of sinners. Obviously private organizations, especially religious ones, do have constitutionally protected rights to operate how they see fit. I fully support a religious organization's right to preach against gay behavior and sanction or throw out "practicing" gays.
However, when it comes to their interaction with the public or the public sphere, I don't see how judgement against certain sins should give individuals the right to apply their religious beliefs toward people who have no interest in living under a conservative Christian set of rules. For example, if a state allows and supports adoption by gay parents and a Christian organization refuses to permit this, they are not entitled to a contract with the state. They can surely carry on their own services and withhold them from gay parents (who will surely corrupt and damage children, from their point of view), but the institution should not be allowed to take on the victim role just because our mainstream culture is quickly moving beyond equating gay with wrong much as we moved beyond equating shellfish with wrong.
With regard to a, we can do everything we can from a training perspective to help practioners recognize and manage any biases they may have. However, I really view this as a slippery slope. Unless our profession comes out with an edict saying "all psychologists must be capable of working with all people" then you will undoubtedly have continued referral out. These things already happen with other subgroups than the queer population a lot. Unless you are willing to address all biases that result in all referals out due to the therapist's level of discomfort or bias, I don't think your argument is valid. The fact of the matter is that there are tons of biases out there - the ones involving the queer population are just particularly emphasized, publicized, and politicized.
With regard to b, I would suggest that referring a patient to someone better suited to treat them is always less harmful then trying to treat them yourself.
I just think making some blanket statement about who is and who is not cut out for mainstream training in clinical psychology based on personal beliefs is a very dangerous statement to make. Whomever makes such a statement would have a difficult time proving their complete personal bias management system to me. To bring it back to our lovely religious texts - I'd see them as having an eye full of plank. I think it is much more realistic to expect responsible management of biases without placing some value on which biases are worse than others and then excluding people based on their personal beliefs. If they in fact are willing to ethically manage those beliefs, I don't see why we can't allow them to practice.
These issues are very different from whether an individual psychologist who holds certain beliefs should not be allowed to practice because they choose to refer out clients that they don't believe they can serve.
Personally, I am of the mind that religious organizations only make meaningful changes through grassroots, lead-by-example efforts without trying to force their ideology on others. When they start lobbying on political issues, I think the ideology becomes corrupted. But that is another topic entirely...
I don't think the lack of universal principles in this area should preclude developing any standards whatsoever. And I don't see how you need to be free of bias in order to develop or enforce standards of practice. We shouldn't be evaluating people based on the outcome of having to refer out, but rather the process they used in order to reach that conclusion. Individuals whose process resembles the person described above who refused to work with "aids, SA, homeless" because they felt all that behavior was wrong, is really showing a refusal to function as a competent clinician in mainstream psych.
I think these issues are at the root of it. To what extent are sincerely held personal beliefs allowed to guide your interaction with individuals who may live by a very different set of principles?
As I said, I'd love to see what those standards would look like and how they categorize and prioritize bias. These types of standards would likely involve a lot of value judgments.
We could always resort to the utterly laughable...
But if that were the case, I wouldn't be able to work in rehab or with straight people...
Personally, I am of the mind that religious organizations only make meaningful changes through grassroots, lead-by-example efforts without trying to force their ideology on others. When they start lobbying on political issues, I think the ideology becomes corrupted. But that is another topic entirely...
You need to come play in the Socio-Political Forum here. I can't remember if I've seen your name before, but whenever I have popped in there it is entertaining if nothing else.
As for this topic...I still stick with the decision to refer out if there is any doubt that adequate and objective work cannot be offered by the clinician to the patient. It isn't perfect, and it may be more problematic if there are limited resources, but trying to put a square peg into a round hole only really works if you use a hammer....and that doesn't end well for anyone.
I just find it laughable that someone would want to solve something that is questionable as a problem (referring cases out that you do not feel suitable to work with) by discriminating in the admissions process based on someone's religious beliefs. If our field wants to create some standards that exclude subgroups of people from training, I think adequate justification is going to be required...
what if i identify as 'objectum sexual'?
I agree that it would be problematic to have a "belief test" in the admissions process, but there's no need for that. The issue with the new law was whether a particular student (or students -- there has been more than one lawsuit) should be dismissed because she refused to comply with her internship site's, university's, and profession's ethical guidelines. This isn't so much a "what-do-you-believe" test as it is a "what-did-you-do-during-your-internship" test. Again, if she doesn't like her secular university's standards, she can go to a Christian counseling program.
Where I work, we are the only site that accepts medicaid in a hundred mile radius (at least). If this law pertained to us and we elected not to see gay clients then what would any gay clients in the area with medicaid do? Should clinicians preface that they don't accept gay clients to everyone they see in any capacity, so that they know if they elect to come out they won't be welcome there? How would this affect contracts with insurance providers (i.e. "we're in network with cigna, but we won't accept your policy because you're gay - sorry") - This all is starting to sound a lot like "separate but equal" mental health care with a little bit of "don't ask, don't tell" thrown in the mix.
I guess I am not viewing this as something widespread or specific to the queer population. I have witnessed therapists refer patients they don't want to see for a variety of reasons (the most common one being they don't want to work with substance users from what I've seen). I don't really agree with it, but if they can make an appropriate referral, I don't see what the major problem is. If there are no appropriate referrals, I think a different dilemma comes up.
If you haven't noticed, I prefer to view this issue about referring clients out due to personal bias and not a "gay" issue specifically, since as I noted earlier in the thread, I'm fairly certain it happens a lot more often in other subpopulations.
It seems disingenuous to claim that we don't apply the same standard to other (non-sexuality-related) beliefs and behavior. We do. That's why we have professional ethics: to draw a line and say, "If you can't do XYZ, find another occupation." Just to give an example, most grad programs wouldn't question dismissing a white supremacist student who wouldn't work with non-white clients. How is sexuality different? Where do you draw the line? And don't say it's not specifically a gay issue. If it weren't, this thread wouldn't exist.
It seems disingenuous to claim that we don't apply the same standard to other (non-sexuality-related) beliefs and behavior. We do. That's why we have professional ethics: to draw a line and say, "If you can't do XYZ, find another occupation." Just to give an example, most grad programs wouldn't question dismissing a white supremacist student who wouldn't work with non-white clients. How is sexuality different? Where do you draw the line? And don't say it's not specifically a gay issue. If it weren't, this thread wouldn't exist.
I'm still curious about insurance contracts and liability (refusing to see someone because they're gay/the client doesn't identify as gay) - Sorry if you already answered this.
I have answered this question previously.