Hey Everyone,
I had a patient come in today who was absolutely insistent that two of her 30mg tablets were equal to one 60mg tablet. Our 60mg tablet was on back order and her MD gave her some samples to tide her over. I know if pharmacy school we're taught that technically two 30mg tablets does not equal one 60mg tablet, but I'm never sure of the reason why.
Anybody know of how I can explain to this patient that two 30mg tablet is not necessarily equivalent to one 60mg tablet? Is there any study you've seen that looked at the PK or Cmax values between something similar?
Even if we don't exactly know why two 30mg is not = 60mg, it'd be nice to see something more concrete.
I had a patient come in today who was absolutely insistent that two of her 30mg tablets were equal to one 60mg tablet. Our 60mg tablet was on back order and her MD gave her some samples to tide her over. I know if pharmacy school we're taught that technically two 30mg tablets does not equal one 60mg tablet, but I'm never sure of the reason why.
Anybody know of how I can explain to this patient that two 30mg tablet is not necessarily equivalent to one 60mg tablet? Is there any study you've seen that looked at the PK or Cmax values between something similar?
Even if we don't exactly know why two 30mg is not = 60mg, it'd be nice to see something more concrete.