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In the Kaplan book I'm working on, a graph is shown with PV on the y-axis and P on the x-axis. Just to give you an idea of what the graph looks like, it has a negative slope and on the x-axis, pressure begins at 0 and increases by .1 until 1.0 is reached.
The question reads "does the graph describe the relationship between pressure and volume that would be seen for an ideal gas?"
Using my brain, I thought that by looking at 1.0 atm - if the PV graph read 22.4 L, then that would give me the answer that yes, it is representative of an ideal gas. When I looked at 1.0 atm, it gave me a PV value of 22.1 which is pretty close to 22.4 so the answer is yes. However, the details in the answer confuses me. The answer reads, "Yes, the graph describes an ideal gas because the value of PV at 0 atm is approximately 22.4L"
I thought that 22.4L was achieved at STP which takes into account 1 atm. Why is the answer saying "Yes, because the value of PV at ZERO atm is approximately 22.4"?
The question reads "does the graph describe the relationship between pressure and volume that would be seen for an ideal gas?"
Using my brain, I thought that by looking at 1.0 atm - if the PV graph read 22.4 L, then that would give me the answer that yes, it is representative of an ideal gas. When I looked at 1.0 atm, it gave me a PV value of 22.1 which is pretty close to 22.4 so the answer is yes. However, the details in the answer confuses me. The answer reads, "Yes, the graph describes an ideal gas because the value of PV at 0 atm is approximately 22.4L"
I thought that 22.4L was achieved at STP which takes into account 1 atm. Why is the answer saying "Yes, because the value of PV at ZERO atm is approximately 22.4"?