For this question, why does it say "Therefore, if sympathetic nervous system arousal had caused the differences, only the synchronous condition would have been affected." Based on the answer, shouldn't it instead say that therefore, BOTH conditions would have been affected?
Additionally, if the hypothesis is: "sympathetic nervous system activity is creating the conformity/obedience effect seen," wouldn't choice (C) reject the hypothesis outright? Since it explains that there is no sympathetic nervous system activity going on at all?
I can understand that D is right in hindsight, but wouldn't C also discredit the explanation? I am also confused about the wording on D's explanation.
