ACFD elegibility exam- question & answer discussion

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liwanag

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Hi everyone!

I have taken the EE in May this year and a bit disappointed with my 80% score. So, i will give it another try this September. Those of you who have taken the exam and planning to take it again, let's share those questions that we have remembered and discuss the answers thru private e-mail.

my e-mail add: [email protected]

thank you and goodluck
 
Tylenol and ASA are same in all of the following except
  • mode of action
  • onset of action
  • duration of action
  • toxicity😕


Systemic fluoride are least effective on
  • proximal surface
  • smooth surface
  • root surface
  • pits and fissures😕


Which of the following cause bone loss?
  • C3a, C5a
  • Endotoxin😕
  • Interleukin
  • Implies wrong dose of radiation


Methotrexate, 5-Flu predipose to all except
  • ulcers
  • candidiasis
  • thrombo-embolic disorders😕
  • bleeding
  • hair loss

all of the following are advantages of an indirect composite inlay over conventional composite inlay Execpt
  • increased abrasion resistance
  • harder material
  • better seal
  • better fit
thanks a lot
 
Tissue conditioning most frequently used to treat
A. Epulis fissuratum
b. papillary hyperplasia of the candida albicans
c. traumatized mucosa caused by ill-fitting denture😕
 
Systemic fluoride are least effective on
  • proximal surface
  • smooth surface
  • root surface
  • pits and fissures
I think the answer here is ROOT SURFACE. cause flouride gets deposited in the Enamel ( topical or systemic) to make it resistant to caries.
 
for samyred
thanks.
i guess it's b, you have to stabilize the the tuberosity first, by leaving them both. since the tuberosity is already unstable, if you remove the 3rd molar there's chance that you will remove the tuberosity as well. that's my own opinion. what do you think.

for the other question, ans is b.

@ liwanag

the questions in doubt are in red... I marked the answer I think is right.


please correct me if i'm wrong
thanks🙂

3. during extraction of a maxillary third molar, the tuberosity is fractured. the tooth with the tuberosity remains attached to the surrounding soft tissue. you should
a. remove both and suture
b. leave both and stabilize, if possible👍 (some people agree with you):meanie:
c. remove both, fill the defect with gelfoam and suture
d. reflect the mucoperiosteum, remove the tooth, leaving the tuberosity in place and suture (I think this is also right!!!):meanie:


7. bacterial infection may be confirmed by
1. WBC
2. hemoglobin count
3. erythrocyte sedimentation rate
4. platelet count

a. 12&3 b. 1&3:meanie: c. 2&4 d. 4 only e. all of the above👍:meanie:
 
I THINK B IS CORRECT

Quote:
Originally Posted by liwanag
[FONT=times new roman, new york, times, serif]when doing midfacial probing the perio probe suddenly drop apical to the mucogingival junction because of? .
[FONT=times new roman, new york, times, serif]a) hyperplastic gingiva b. no attached gingiva I THINK THIS IS CORRECT c.? d. ?.

[FONT=times new roman, new york, times, serif]what do u think guys?😕.
[FONT=times new roman, new york, times, serif]thanks.


agee with you
thanks🙂
 
Tylenol and ASA are same in all of the following except
  • mode of action
  • onset of action
  • duration of action
  • toxicity😕👍

Systemic fluoride are least effective on
  • proximal surface
  • smooth surface
  • root surface
  • pits and fissures😕👍

Which of the following cause bone loss?
  • C3a, C5a
  • Endotoxin😕👍
  • Interleukin
  • Implies wrong dose of radiation

Methotrexate, 5-Flu predipose to all except
  • ulcers
  • candidiasis
  • thrombo-embolic disorders😕
  • bleeding
  • hair loss
all of the following are advantages of an indirect composite inlay over conventional composite inlay Execpt
  • increased abrasion resistance😕not sure
  • harder material
  • better seal
  • better fit
thanks for the questions🙂
 
Methotrexate, 5-Flu predipose to all except
  • ulcers
  • candidiasis
  • thrombo-embolic disorders😕 👍
  • bleeding
  • hair loss
What are the possible side effects of methotrexate?

Get emergency medical help if you have any of these signs of an allergic reaction: hives; difficulty breathing; swelling of your face, lips, tongue, or throat. Stop using methotrexate and call your doctor at once if you have any of these serious side effects:
  • dry cough, shortness of breath;
  • diarrhea, vomiting, white patches or sores inside your mouth or on your lips;
  • blood in your urine or stools;
  • urinating less than usual or not at all;
  • fever, chills, body aches, flu symptoms;
  • sore throat and headache with a severe blistering, peeling, and red skin rash;
  • pale skin, easy bruising or bleeding, weakness; or
  • nausea, stomach pain, low fever, loss of appetite, dark urine, clay-colored stools, jaundice (yellowing of the skin or eyes).
Side effects:
Methotrexate exerts its chemotherapeutic effect by its ability to counteract and compete with folic acid in cancer cells resulting in folic acid deficiency within the cells and causing their demise. Normal cells are not immune form this effect of Methotrexate either. As a result, it can cause significant side effects in the body. The degree and severity of the side effects depend on the amount and schedule of the administration of Methotrexate. Following are some of the most common and important ill effects:
 
11 a major advantage to patient treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern of edentulous ridge resorption, which of the following is believed to be the reason for a more physiologic loading of the bone
a. delayed loading
b. endosteal loading
c. sequential loading
d. progressive loading
e. mucoperiosteal loading
REALLY REALLY CONFUSED WITH THIS


2 an 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. an examination discloses a painless, hard swelling of his mandibular premolar region. the patient first noticed this swelling three weeks ago. radiograph indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass. which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. dentigerous cyst
c. ossifying fibroma
d. osteoma
e. hyperparathyroidism

3. the number of patients with disease divided by the number of patients defines
a. specificity
b. sensitivity
c. prevalence
d. incidence
 
11 a major advantage to patient treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern of edentulous ridge resorption, which of the following is believed to be the reason for a more physiologic loading of the bone
a. delayed loading
b. endosteal loading👍
c. sequential loading
d. progressive loading
e. mucoperiosteal loading
REALLY REALLY CONFUSED WITH THIS


2 an 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. an examination discloses a painless, hard swelling of his mandibular premolar region. the patient first noticed this swelling three weeks ago. radiograph indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass. which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. dentigerous cyst
c. ossifying fibroma👍
d. osteoma
e. hyperparathyroidism

3. the number of patients with disease divided by the number of patients defines
a. specificity
b. sensitivity
c. prevalence
d. incidence👍
Incidence - the number of new occurrences of a condition (or disease) in a population over a period of time.

The incidence rate uses new cases in the numerator; individuals with a history of a condition are not included. The denominator for incidence rates is the population at risk. [FONT=Arial,Helvetica][SIZE=+1]Formula:[/SIZE].
incid_formula.gif

correct me if my ans are wrong:luck:
 
i need help. just confused.

if patient loses a permanent maxillary first molar before the age of 11, the
1. premolar drifts distally
2. maxillary 2nd molar erupts and moves mesially
3. opposing tooth erupts into the space created
4. overbite increases
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c. 2&4 d. 4only e. all of the above

following the loss of a permanent mandibular first molar at age 8, which of the following changes are likely to occur?
1. distal drift of 2nd premolar
2. no movement of second premolar
3. mesial drift of second permanent molar
4. no movement of second permanent molar
a. 12&3 b. 1&3 c. 2&4 d. 4only e. all of the above
thanks🙂
 
11 a major advantage to patient treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern of edentulous ridge resorption, which of the following is believed to be the reason for a more physiologic loading of the bone
a. delayed loading
b. endosteal loading
c. sequential loading
d. progressive loading
e. mucoperiosteal loading
REALLY REALLY CONFUSED WITH THIS


2 an 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. an examination discloses a painless, hard swelling of his mandibular premolar region. the patient first noticed this swelling three weeks ago. radiograph indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass. which of the following is the MOST likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. dentigerous cyst
c. ossifying fibroma
d. osteoma 👍
e. hyperparathyroidism

3. the number of patients with disease divided by the number of patients defines
a. specificity
b. sensitivity
c. prevalence 👍
d. incidence

in my opinion
 
which of the following is a Schedule II drug?
a. Percodab
b.Darvocet
c.Propoxyphene😕
d. Hydrocodone😕

I know Oxycodon belongs to Schedule II, how about Hydrocodone. I am lost.
 
ts schedule 3 drug.

as under:

Schedule I

• The drug or other substance has a high potential for abuse.

• The drug or other substance has no currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States.

• There is a lack of accepted safety for use of the drug or other substance under medical supervision.

• Examples of Schedule I substances include heroin, lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD), marijuana, and methaqualone.

Schedule II

• The drug or other substance has a high potential for abuse.

• The drug or other substance has a currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States or a currently accepted medical use with severe restrictions.

• Abuse of the drug or other substance may lead to severe psychological or physical dependence.

• Examples of Schedule II substances include morphine, phencyclidine (PCP), cocaine, methadone, and methamphetamine.

Schedule III

• The drug or other substance has less potential for abuse than the drugs or other substances in schedules I and II.

• The drug or other substance has a currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States.

• Abuse of the drug or other substance may lead to moderate or low physical dependence or high psychological dependence.

• Anabolic steroids, codeine and hydrocodone with aspirin or Tylenol®, and some barbiturates are examples of Schedule III substances.

Schedule IV

• The drug or other substance has a low potential for abuse relative to the drugs or other substances in Schedule III.

• The drug or other substance has a currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States.

• Abuse of the drug or other substance may lead to limited physical dependence or psychological dependence relative to the drugs or other substances in Schedule III.

• Examples of drugs included in schedule IV are Darvon®, Talwin®, Equanil®, Valium®, and Xanax®.

Schedule V

• The drug or other substance has a low potential for abuse relative to the drugs or other substances in Schedule IV.

• The drug or other substance has a currently accepted medical use in treatment in the United States.

• Abuse of the drug or other substances may lead to limited physical dependence or psychological dependence relative to the drugs or other substances in Schedule IV.

• Cough medicines with codeine are examples of Schedule V drugs.

To Top To Contents

When the DEA Administrator has determined that a drug or other substance should be controlled, decontrolled, or rescheduled, a proposal to take action is published in the Federal Register. The proposal invites all interested persons to file comments with the DEA. Affected parties may also request a hearing with the DEA. If no hearing is requested, the DEA will evaluate a
 
correct me if i am wrong.....
Q2 symptoms of pain and tenderness upon palpation of the TMJ are usually associated with which of the following
a. impacted mandibular third molars
b. flaccid paralysis of the painful side of the face🙂
c. flaccid paralysis of the non painful side of the face
d. excitability of the second division of the fifth nerve
d. deviation of the jaw to the painful side upon opening the month.

are u sure😕
 
Quote:
Originally Posted by liwanag
[FONT=times new roman, new york, times, serif]when doing midfacial probing the perio probe suddenly drop apical to the mucogingival junction because of? .
[FONT=times new roman, new york, times, serif]a) hyperplastic gingiva b. no attached gingiva I THINK THIS IS CORRECT c.? d. ?.

[FONT=times new roman, new york, times, serif]what do u think guys?😕.
[FONT=times new roman, new york, times, serif]thanks.


agee with you
thanks🙂
agree with u
 
i need help. just confused.

if patient loses a permanent maxillary first molar before the age of 11, the
1. premolar drifts distally
2. maxillary 2nd molar erupts and moves mesially
3. opposing tooth erupts into the space created
4. overbite increases
a. 12&3😕 b. 1&3 c. 2&4 d. 4only e. all of the above

following the loss of a permanent mandibular first molar at age 8, which of the following changes are likely to occur?
1. distal drift of 2nd premolar
2. no movement of second premolar
3. mesial drift of second permanent molar
4. no movement of second permanent molar
a. 12&3 b. 1&3🙂 c. 2&4 d. 4only e. all of the above
thanks🙂
CORRECT ME....
NOT SO SURE BOUT THE FIRST ONE COZ THE FIRST PM SHD BE COMING AROUND THE SAME TIME SO I DONT KNOW IF OVERBITE WILL DEEPEN....N IF IT DOES WUD`NT IT BE LIKE ASSYMETRIC,?????🙁
 
Q2 symptoms of pain and tenderness upon palpation of the TMJ are usually associated with which of the following
a. impacted mandibular third molars
b. flaccid paralysis of the painful side of the face🙂
c. flaccid paralysis of the non painful side of the face
d. excitability of the second division of the fifth nerve
d. deviation of the jaw to the painful side upon opening the month.

are u sure😕
NO IM NOT SURE.........MAY BE ITS THE FIRST ONE..............😕
 
In a Factor VIII hemophiliac, which of the
following laboratory findings is typical?
A. Prolonged clotting time.
B. Prolonged bleeding time.
C. Abnormally low blood platelet count.
D. Prothrombin time 30% of normal.😕
 
In a Factor VIII hemophiliac, which of the
following laboratory findings is typical?
A. Prolonged clotting time.
B. Prolonged bleeding time.
C. Abnormally low blood platelet count.
D. Prothrombin time 30% of normal.😕

TYPICAL FINDING IN CLASSIC HEMOPHELIA ie FACTOR VIII IS PROLONED CLOTTING TIME

Correct if if i am wrong
 
1 Precipitation of salivary calcium salts to form
calculus is
A. promoted by a higher buffering
capacity.
B. inhibited by a higher buffering
capacity.
C. inhibited by a higher pH.
D. promoted by a higher pH.

2 A 60-year old patient requests the
replacement of tooth 4.6, which was extracted
many years ago. Tooth 1.6 has extruded
1.8mm into the space of the missing tooth.
The three unit fixed bridge replacing the
mandibular first molar should be fabricated
A. to the existing occlusion.
B. after extracting tooth 1.6 and
replacing it with a fixed partial
denture.
C. after restoring tooth 1.6 to a more
normal plane of occlusion.
D. after devitalizing and preparing tooth
1.6 for a cast crown.


3) A known insulin-dependent diabetic patient feels
unwell following the administration of a local
anesthetic and becomes pale and sweaty. This
condition does not respond to placing the patient in
a supine position. The most likely cause is
A. syncope.
B. adrenal insufficiency.
C. hyperglycemia.
D. hypoglycemia.
E. carotid sinus reflex

4 A survey of the master cast shows that the 3.5 and
3.7 abutments for a fixed partial denture have
different paths of insertion with respect to 3.7. A
semi-precision attachment is chosen rather than
preparing the teeth again. Where should the male
part of the attachment ideally be located?
A. Distal of the 3.5 retainer.
B. Distal of the 3.6 pontic.
C. Mesial of the 3.7 retainer.
D. Mesial of the 3.6 pontic.

5 The best means of extending the working time of
an irreversible hydrocolloid impression material is
to
A. extend spatulation time.
B. add additional water.
C. use cold water.
D. add a small amount of borax.
E. add potassium sulfate

6 A cast post and core is used to
1. provide intraradicular venting.
2. strengthen a weakened tooth.
3. redirect the forces of occlusion.
4. provide retention for a cast crown.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above

7 The prime advantage of vacuum firing of porcelain
is
A. better colour.
B. less shrinkage.
C. more translucency.
D. increased strength.

8 A 4-year old child has a normal
complement of deciduous teeth, but in
appearance they are grayish and exhibit
extensive occlusal and incisal wear.
Radiographic examination indicates some
extensive deposits of secondary dentin in
these teeth. This condition is typical of
A. cleidocranial dysplasia (dysostosis).
B. amelogenesis imperfecta.
C. neonatal hypoplasia.
D. dentinogenesis imperfecta

9 A 6-year old patient has a larger than average
diastema between the maxillary central incisors.
The radiographic examination shows a mesiodens.
In order to manage the diastema, you should
extract the mesiodens
A. after its complete eruption.
B. once the patient has reached the age of
12.
C. only if it develops into a cystic lesion.
D. as soon as possible.

10 When sutures are used to reposition tissue over
extraction sites, they should be
1. placed over firm bone where possible.
2. interrupted, 15mm apart.
3. firm enough to approximate tissue flaps
without blanching.
4. tight enough to produce immediate
hemostasis.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

11 A lateral cephalometric radiograph for a patient
with a 3mm anterior functional shift should be
taken with the patient in
A. maximum intercuspation.
B. initial contact.
C. normal rest position.
D. maximum opening.
E. protrusive position.

12 Which of the following should be checked first
when a cast gold crown that fits on its die cannot
be seated on its abutment?
A. The occlusal contacts.
B. The taper of the preparation.
C. The proximal contacts.
D. The impression used to pour the cast.

13 Compared to unfilled resins, composite resins have
1. reduced thermal dimensional changes.
2. increased strength.
3. reduced polymerization shrinkage.
4. better polishability.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

14 Most zinc-oxide-eugenol cements are not suitable
for permanent cementation of crowns and fixed
partial dentures because of
A. high viscosity.
B. low pH.
C. high solubility in saliva.
D. adverse pulp response.

15 Which of the following conditions would NOT
require antibiotic premedication before endodontic
therapy?
A. Valvular heart disease.
B. Cardiac prosthesis.
C. Persistent odontogenic fistula.
D. Immuno-suppressive therapy.
E. Organ transplant.

16 A 42 year-old lethargic patient complains of
constipation, weakness and fatigue. The clinical
examination reveals dry skin, facial swelling and
diffuse enlargement of the tongue. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Infectious mononucleosis.
B. Multiple myeloma.
C. Hypothyroidism.
D. Hyperparathyroidism.
E. Addison's Disease.

17 A vital canine is to be used as the anterior
abutment of a four unit fixed partial denture and it
has 2mm remaining coronal tooth structure. The
most acceptable foundation restoration would be
A. a bonded amalgam.
B. a pin retained amalgam core build-up.
C. a pin retained composite resin core buildup.
D. intentional devitalization followed by a
post and core restoration.

18 Benzodiazepines have all of the following
actions EXCEPT
A. muscle relaxation.
B. sedation.
C. amnesia.
D. anticonvulsant action.
E. analgesia.

19 After performing an apicoectomy, which of the
following should be placed in the bony defect
prior to suturing the flap?
A. Corticosteroids.
B. Antibiotic powder.
C. Oxidized cellulose.
D. Bone wax.
E. Nothing.

20 Which of the following combinations of
milliamperage and kilovoltage will give Xradiation
with the maximum penetration?
A. 10kVp - 65ma
B. 85kVp - 5ma
C. 90kVp - 10ma
D. 65kVp - 15ma
E. 75kVp - 40ma


21 Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
(AIDS) may be characterized by
1. candidiasis.
2. rapid weight loss and night sweats.
3. extreme malaise, fever or chills.
4. a smooth and red tongue.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

22 During drug-receptor interaction, local
anaesthetics interfere with the transport of
which of the following ions?
A. Sodium.
B. Calcium.
C. Chloride.
D. Potassium.
E. Magnesium.

23 Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in
the largest numbers in response to the
accumulation of plaque?
A. Plasma cells and monocytes.
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes.
C. Macrophages.
D. Lymphocytes.
E. Mast cells.

24 Filters are placed in the path of the x-ray
beam to
A. increase contrast.
B. reduce film density.
C. reduce exposure time.
D. reduce patient radiation dose

25 Benign neoplasms
1. grow slowly.
2. are generally painless.
3. can be managed conservatively.
4. can metastasize.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

26 Which of the following would be a
CONTRAINDICATION for the use of a resin
bonded fixed partial denture (acid etched
bridge or "Maryland Bridge")?
A. Class II malocclusion.
B. An opposing free end saddle
removable partial.
C. Previous orthodontic treatment.
D. Heavily restored abutment.

27 When removing bone or sectioning roots of
teeth with a high-speed handpiece, the
air/water combination should be set with
A. air and water on.
B. water only.
C. air only.
D. neither air nor water.
 
TYPICAL FINDING IN CLASSIC HEMOPHELIA ie FACTOR VIII IS PROLONED CLOTTING TIME

Correct if if i am wrong
I agree with you.
For classic hemophelia, BT is normal, PT is normal, PPT is prolonged, so clotting time is prolonged.
 
Quote:
Originally Posted by liwanag
i need help. just confused.

if patient loses a permanent maxillary first molar before the age of 11, the
1. premolar drifts distally
2. maxillary 2nd molar erupts and moves mesially
3. opposing tooth erupts into the space created
4. overbite increases
a. 12&3😕 b. 1&3 c. 2&4 d. 4only e. all of the above

following the loss of a permanent mandibular first molar at age 8, which of the following changes are likely to occur?
1. distal drift of 2nd premolar
2. no movement of second premolar
3. mesial drift of second permanent molar
4. no movement of second permanent molar
a. 12&3 b. 1&3🙂 c. 2&4 d. 4only e. all of the above
thanks🙂



CORRECT ME....
NOT SO SURE BOUT THE FIRST ONE COZ THE FIRST PM SHD BE COMING AROUND THE SAME TIME SO I DONT KNOW IF OVERBITE WILL DEEPEN....N IF IT DOES WUD`NT IT BE LIKE ASSYMETRIC,?????🙁

i guess the ans is 12&3. won't cause deep overbite.

the next q. agree w/u too
thanks🙂
 
1 Precipitation of salivary calcium salts to form
calculus is
A. promoted by a higher buffering
capacity.
B. inhibited by a higher buffering*
capacity.
C. inhibited by a higher pH.
D. promoted by a higher pH.

2 A 60-year old patient requests the
replacement of tooth 4.6, which was extracted
many years ago. Tooth 1.6 has extruded
1.8mm into the space of the missing tooth.
The three unit fixed bridge replacing the
mandibular first molar should be fabricated
A. to the existing occlusion.
B. after extracting tooth 1.6 and
replacing it with a fixed partial
denture.
C. after restoring tooth 1.6 to a more*
normal plane of occlusion.
D. after devitalizing and preparing tooth
1.6 for a cast crown.


3) A known insulin-dependent diabetic patient feels
unwell following the administration of a local
anesthetic and becomes pale and sweaty. This
condition does not respond to placing the patient in
a supine position. The most likely cause is
A. syncope.
B. adrenal insufficiency.
C. hyperglycemia.
D. hypoglycemia.*
E. carotid sinus reflex

4 A survey of the master cast shows that the 3.5 and
3.7 abutments for a fixed partial denture have
different paths of insertion with respect to 3.7. A
semi-precision attachment is chosen rather than
preparing the teeth again. Where should the male
part of the attachment ideally be located?
A. Distal of the 3.5 retainer.
B. Distal of the 3.6 pontic.
C. Mesial of the 3.7 retainer.*
D. Mesial of the 3.6 pontic.

5 The best means of extending the working time of
an irreversible hydrocolloid impression material is
to
A. extend spatulation time.
B. add additional water.
C. use cold water.*
D. add a small amount of borax.
E. add potassium sulfate

6 A cast post and core is used to
1. provide intraradicular venting.
2. strengthen a weakened tooth.
3. redirect the forces of occlusion.
4. provide retention for a cast crown.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only*
E. All of the above

7 The prime advantage of vacuum firing of porcelain
is
A. better colour.
B. less shrinkage.
C. more translucency.
D. increased strength.*

8 A 4-year old child has a normal
complement of deciduous teeth, but in
appearance they are grayish and exhibit
extensive occlusal and incisal wear.
Radiographic examination indicates some
extensive deposits of secondary dentin in
these teeth. This condition is typical of
A. cleidocranial dysplasia (dysostosis).
B. amelogenesis imperfecta.
C. neonatal hypoplasia.
D. dentinogenesis imperfecta*

9 A 6-year old patient has a larger than average
diastema between the maxillary central incisors.
The radiographic examination shows a mesiodens.
In order to manage the diastema, you should
extract the mesiodens
A. after its complete eruption.
B. once the patient has reached the age of
12.
C. only if it develops into a cystic lesion.
D. as soon as possible.*

10 When sutures are used to reposition tissue over
extraction sites, they should be
1. placed over firm bone where possible.
2. interrupted, 15mm apart.
3. firm enough to approximate tissue flaps
without blanching.
4. tight enough to produce immediate
hemostasis.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)*
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

11 A lateral cephalometric radiograph for a patient
with a 3mm anterior functional shift should be
taken with the patient in
A. maximum intercuspation.
B. initial contact.*
C. normal rest position.
D. maximum opening.
E. protrusive position.

12 Which of the following should be checked first
when a cast gold crown that fits on its die cannot
be seated on its abutment?
A. The occlusal contacts.
B. The taper of the preparation.
C. The proximal contacts.*
D. The impression used to pour the cast.

13 Compared to unfilled resins, composite resins have
1. reduced thermal dimensional changes.
2. increased strength.
3. reduced polymerization shrinkage.
4. better polishability.
A. (1) (2) (3)*
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

14 Most zinc-oxide-eugenol cements are not suitable
for permanent cementation of crowns and fixed
partial dentures because of
A. high viscosity.
B. low pH.
C. high solubility in saliva.*
D. adverse pulp response.

15 Which of the following conditions would NOT
require antibiotic premedication before endodontic
therapy?
A. Valvular heart disease.
B. Cardiac prosthesis.
C. Persistent odontogenic fistula.*
D. Immuno-suppressive therapy.
E. Organ transplant.

16 A 42 year-old lethargic patient complains of
constipation, weakness and fatigue. The clinical
examination reveals dry skin, facial swelling and
diffuse enlargement of the tongue. What is the
most likely diagnosis?
A. Infectious mononucleosis.
B. Multiple myeloma.
C. Hypothyroidism.*
D. Hyperparathyroidism.
E. Addison’s Disease.

17 A vital canine is to be used as the anterior
abutment of a four unit fixed partial denture and it
has 2mm remaining coronal tooth structure. The
most acceptable foundation restoration would be
A. a bonded amalgam.
B. a pin retained amalgam core build-up.
C. a pin retained composite resin core buildup.
D. intentional devitalization followed by a*
post and core restoration.

18 Benzodiazepines have all of the following
actions EXCEPT
A. muscle relaxation.
B. sedation.
C. amnesia.
D. anticonvulsant action.
E. analgesia.*

19 After performing an apicoectomy, which of the
following should be placed in the bony defect
prior to suturing the flap?
A. Corticosteroids.
B. Antibiotic powder.
C. Oxidized cellulose.
D. Bone wax.
E. Nothing.*

20 Which of the following combinations of
milliamperage and kilovoltage will give Xradiation
with the maximum penetration?
A. 10kVp - 65ma
B. 85kVp - 5ma
C. 90kVp - 10ma*
D. 65kVp - 15ma
E. 75kVp - 40ma


21 Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
(AIDS) may be characterized by
1. candidiasis.
2. rapid weight loss and night sweats.
3. extreme malaise, fever or chills.
4. a smooth and red tongue.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.*

22 During drug-receptor interaction, local
anaesthetics interfere with the transport of
which of the following ions?
A. Sodium.*
B. Calcium.
C. Chloride.
D. Potassium.
E. Magnesium.

23 Which cells migrate into the gingival sulcus in
the largest numbers in response to the
accumulation of plaque?
A. Plasma cells and monocytes.
B. Polymorphonuclear leukocytes.*
C. Macrophages.
D. Lymphocytes.
E. Mast cells.

24 Filters are placed in the path of the x-ray
beam to
A. increase contrast.
B. reduce film density.
C. reduce exposure time.
D. reduce patient radiation dose*

25 Benign neoplasms
1. grow slowly.
2. are generally painless.
3. can be managed conservatively.
4. can metastasize.
A. (1) (2) (3)*
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

26 Which of the following would be a
CONTRAINDICATION for the use of a resin
bonded fixed partial denture (acid etched
bridge or “Maryland Bridge”)?
A. Class II malocclusion.
B. An opposing free end saddle
removable partial.
C. Previous orthodontic treatment.
D. Heavily restored abutment.*

27 When removing bone or sectioning roots of
teeth with a high-speed handpiece, the
air/water combination should be set with
A. air and water on.
B. water only.*
C. air only.
D. neither air nor water.

please correct me if i have a wrong ans.🙂
 
please correct me if i have a wrong ans.🙂

hi liwang do you have any support for first question ..

1 Precipitation of salivary calcium salts to form
calculus is
A. promoted by a higher buffering
capacity.
B. inhibited by a higher buffering*
capacity.
C. inhibited by a higher pH.
D. promoted by a higher pH.

Thnks
 
1 Precipitation of salivary calcium salts to form
calculus is
A. promoted by a higher buffering*
capacity.
B. inhibited by a higher buffering
capacity.
C. inhibited by a higher pH.
D. promoted by a higher pH.*

I do know that lower pH will promote calcium internal absorption. Is that mean higher PH will promote calcium precipitation?

Higher buffering capacity of salivary , means higher pH of saliver , so answer should be A/D😕😕😕

anybody can correct me? I am so confused. Thanks a lot!!!
 
The best way to protect the abutments of a Class I removable partial denture from the negative effects of the additional load applied to them is by
A. splinting abutments with adjacent teeth
B. keeping a light occlusion of the distal extensions
C.placing distal rests on distal abutments
D.using cast clasps on distal abutments
E.regular relining of the distal extensions
 
HI ,I THINK ITS B .Do YOU HAVE SOME DOUBT WITH KEEPING A LIGHT OCCLUSION OF THE DISTAL EXTENSION...WHAT DO U THINK SHOULD BE THE CORRECT ANSWER...
THANKS


The best way to protect the abutments of a Class I removable partial denture from the negative effects of the additional load applied to them is by
A. splinting abutments with adjacent teeth
B. keeping a light occlusion of the distal extensions
C.placing distal rests on distal abutments
D.using cast clasps on distal abutments
E.regular relining of the distal extensions
 
hi, at begining, i was hesitate between b & e. now i got the point. thx a lot.🙂 It is B.

HI ,I THINK ITS B .Do YOU HAVE SOME DOUBT WITH KEEPING A LIGHT OCCLUSION OF THE DISTAL EXTENSION...WHAT DO U THINK SHOULD BE THE CORRECT ANSWER...
THANKS
 
Following root planing, a patient experiences thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated with which of the following?
A. Golgi receptor
B. Free nerve endings
C. Odontoblastic processes
D. cementoblasts


In restoring occlusal anatomy, the protrusive condylar path inclination has its primary influence on the morphology of
A. cusp height
B. anterior teeth only
C.mesial inclines of maxillary cusps and distal inclines of mandibular cusps.
D.mesial inclines of mandibular cusps and distal inclines of maxillary cusp.😕

Thanks.
 
hi
Following root planing, a patient experiences thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated with which of the following?
A. Golgi receptor
B. Free nerve endings
C. Odontoblastic processes👍:luck:
D. cementoblasts


In restoring occlusal anatomy, the protrusive condylar path inclination has its primary influence on the morphology of
A. cusp height
B. anterior teeth only
C.mesial inclines of maxillary cusps and distal inclines of mandibular cusps.
D.mesial inclines of mandibular cusps and distal inclines of maxillary cusp.👍:luck:

Thanks.
 
the answers are...
Following root planing, a patient experiences thermal sensitivity. This pain is associated with which of the following?
A. Golgi receptor
B. Free nerve endings🙂
C. Odontoblastic processes
D. cementoblasts


In restoring occlusal anatomy, the protrusive condylar path inclination has its primary influence on the morphology of
A. cusp height
B. anterior teeth only
C.mesial inclines of maxillary cusps and distal inclines of mandibular cusps.
D.mesial inclines of mandibular cusps and distal inclines of maxillary cusp.😕🙂
the influence is on DUML...DISTAL UPPER N MESIAL LOWER....n the selective grinding is opposite...MUDL....MESIAL UPPER N DISTAL LOWER...👍
Thanks.
 
How wud keeping light occlusion help??? the loss is due to movt of the base ......

HI ,I THINK ITS B .Do YOU HAVE SOME DOUBT WITH KEEPING A LIGHT OCCLUSION OF THE DISTAL EXTENSION...WHAT DO U THINK SHOULD BE THE CORRECT ANSWER...
THANKS
 
i will go with D coz higher pH means there will be more ca deposition as calculus in the form of bru****e...

1 Precipitation of salivary calcium salts to form
calculus is
A. promoted by a higher buffering*
capacity.
B. inhibited by a higher buffering
capacity.
C. inhibited by a higher pH.
D. promoted by a higher pH.*👍

I do know that lower pH will promote calcium internal absorption. Is that mean higher PH will promote calcium precipitation?

Higher buffering capacity of salivary , means higher pH of saliver , so answer should be A/D😕😕😕

anybody can correct me? I am so confused. Thanks a lot!!!
 
21 Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
(AIDS) may be characterized by
1. candidiasis.
2. rapid weight loss and night sweats.
3. extreme malaise, fever or chills.
4. a smooth and red tongue.
A. (1) (2) (3)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Are we co relating smooth red tongue with oral candiasis????😕
 
Gigantism is caused by
A. a hyperactive thyroid.
B. atrophy of the posterior pituitary.
C. hyperplasia of the anterior pituitary.
D. hyperplasia of the parathyroids.
E. None of the above.
 
That will great if somebody provide some focus on this question....

21 Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome
(AIDS) may be characterized by
1. candidiasis.
2. rapid weight loss and night sweats.
3. extreme malaise, fever or chills.
4. a smooth and red tongue.
A. (1) (2) (3)😕
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (4) only
E. All of the above.

Are we co relating smooth red tongue with oral candiasis????😕
 
Is there anybody thinks that neither air nor water is good choice????

When removing bone or sectioning roots of
teeth with a high-speed handpiece, the
air/water combination should be set with
A. air and water on.
B. water only.*
C. air only.
D. neither air nor water.
 
Is there anybody thinks that neither air nor water is good choice????

When removing bone or sectioning roots of
teeth with a high-speed handpiece, the
air/water combination should be set with
A. air and water on.
B. water only.*👍
C. air only.
D. neither air nor water.

thats the right one....👍
 
1. Additional cured silicones (polyvinyl Siloxane) are often the materials of choice for impressions for
fixed restorations. Each of the following is true about these materials except one. Which one is this
exception?
a. give off ethyl alcohol during their setting reaction
b. can be poured more than once and still remain accurate
c. can be poured after 24 hours and still remain accurate
d. rebound from undercuts without permanent deformation
e. may released hydrogen gas during setting
d
2. Why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement of cement immediately before mixing?
a. to avoid absorption of moisture from the air
b. to avoid spreading over a large area of the slab
c. to allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
d. to reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
e. to prevent evaporation of the volatile components.
E
3 which of the following is the typical interocclusal distance between opposing denture teeth at the
physiological rest position?
a. 0.0-0.15 mm
b. 2.0-4.0 mm
c. 4.5-5.5 mm
d 6.0-8.0 mm
b
4 As an X-ray tube operates, electrons carry energy from the cathode to the anode into which of the
following is MOST of this energy converted in the target?
a. heat
b. X ray
c. Magnetism
d. electricity
e. visible light
A or B not sure
5 Class II amalgam restoration has a overhang at gingival margin. This might have been caused by which
of the following?
a. poor adaptation of the matrix band
b. poor carving
c. did not wedge the matrix band
c
6 At what age are all primary teeth normally in occlusion?
a. 1.5-2.0 years
b. 2.5-3.0 years
c. 3.5-4 years
d. >4 years
a
7 Larger condensers and laterally applied condensation forces are recommended to ensure complete
condensation of which of the following amalgam types?
a. admixed
b. spherical
c. lathe-cut
d. high-copper
e. conventional

9 occlusal sealants succeed by altering which of the following
a. the substrate
b. the bacterial types
c. the bacterial number
d. the bacterial virulence
e. the host's susceptibility
a
10 probing depth can vary based on the degree of inflammation
frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a
true gain in clinical attachment.
a. both statements are true
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
a???
11 a major advantage to patient treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern of
edentulous ridge resorption, which of the following is believed to be the reason for a more physiologic
loading of the bone
a. delayed loading
b. endosteal loading
c. sequential loading
d. progressive loading
e. mucoperiosteal loading
d
12 an 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. an examination discloses a painless, hard
swelling of his mandibular premolar region. the patient first noticed this swelling three weeks ago.
radiograph indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass. which of the
following is the MOST likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. dentigerous cyst
c. ossifying fibroma
d. osteoma
e. hyperparathyroidism
c
13 increasing the amount of water in the mix of an improved gypsum die-stone will MOST likely result in
which of the following
a. more expansion and more strength
b. more expansion and less strength
c. less expansion and more strength
d. less expansion and less strength
b
14 which of the following is recommended for treating the pain of tic douloureux (trigeminal neuralgia)?
a. oxycodone
b. ibuprofen
c. carbamazepine
d. hydrocortisone
e. acetylsalicylic acid
c.
15 which of the following is seen MOST frequently among temporomandibular-joint dysfunction patient
a. depression
b. psychosis
c. sociopathy
d. schizotypical behavior
e. passive-aggressive behavior
a.
16 which of the following diagnostic criteria is the LEAST reliable in the assessment of the pulp status in
the primary dentition
a. swelling
b. pulp testing
c. spontaneous pain
d. internal resorption
d


answers plz.......
 
16 which of the following diagnostic criteria is the LEAST reliable in the assessment of the pulp status in
the primary dentition
a. swelling
b. pulp testing
c. spontaneous pain
d. internal resorption

17 which of the following explains why the Z-plasty technique used in modifying a labial frenum is
considered to be superior to the diamond technique
a. it is less traumatic
b. it is technically easier
c. it requires fewer sutures
d. it decreases the effects of scar contracture.
e. it allows for closure by secondary intention

18 which of the following MOST accurately explains how biofeedback works
a. it reduced cognitive dissonance
b. it stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
c. it relaz and to some extent hypnotizes the patient
d. it distracts and engages the patient in an active coping task.
e. it enables the patient to gain control of certain physiological function

19 which of the following describes clindamycin
a. inhibits cell wall synthesis
b. does not penetrate well into bony tissue
c. it usually given in combination with erythromycin
d. is effective against gram-negative bacteria only
e. is effective against most anaerobes

20 dentists usually send their cemento-metal restoration cases to dental lab for fabrication. upon receiving
the cases, these technicians MOST frequently complain that the
a. margines have been ill-defined
b. teeth have been insufficiently reduced
c. shades for the restorations have been inadequately described
d. impressions or models are inaccurate

21 which of the following characteristics of autism presents a major obstacle to successful dental
management of an ambulatory patient
a. impaired communication
b. apparent insensitivity to pain
c. lack of intellectual development
d. inability to perform fine-motor activities
e. automation, such as hair twirling and body rocking

22 the prognosis for bleaching is favorable when the discoloration is caused by
a. necrotic pulp tissue
b. amalgam restoration
c. precipitation of metallic salts
d. silver-containing root canal sealers



25 occlusal disharmony in newly inserted complete dentures MOST frequently results from which of the
following
a. improper waxing
b. overextension of borders
c. errors in registering jaw relations
d. changes in supporting structures following insertion of dentures

26 inflammation from periodontal disease usually extends to the bone marrow following
a. trauma from occlusion
b. the nutrient canals
c. the periodontal ligament
d. the course of the vascular channels

27 how many hours per day should a cervical pull headgear be worn to achieve the MOST affective results
a. 6
b. 8
c. 10
d. 12
e. 14

28 which of the following outlines BEST describes the access cavity preparation on a mandibular molar
with four canals
a. oval
b. trapezoidal
c. triangular
d. round

30 which of the following represents in the classic sign or symptom of an anterior displaced disc with
reduction
a. pain
b. closed lock
c. reciprocal click
d. temporal headache
e. decreased range of motion

31 when evaluating an extension-base removable partial denture several years after delivery, the dentist
should apply loading forces to the base area. if an indirect retainer elevates from its rest seat under these
forces, then this indicated the need to
a. tighten the clasps
b. adjust the occlusion
c. reline the base area
d. remake the partial denture
e. advise the patient to use a denture adhesive

32. current accept technique for reduced pocket depth except one, which one is exception?
a. gingivectomy
b. gingival curettage
c. S & R
d. debridement surgery
e. osseous surgery

33. When determining the appropriate dose of systemic fluoride supplement for a child, it is MOST
important for the dentist to consider which of the following
a. The fluoride content of the drinking water
b. the child’s diet and caries activity
c. the child ago and the fluoride content of the drinking water
d. the child’s weight and the fluoride content of the drinking water.

34. which of the following statements about the bacterial etiology of enamel surface dental caries is
INCORRECT
a. caries is a transmissible bacterial infection
b. the presence of S. mutans in dental plague means the patient has caries
c. pits and fissures from which S. mutans can be cultured may not become carious

35. a patient who takes dicumarol is probably being treated for
a. hypertension
b. angina pectoris
c. coronary infarct
d. paroxysmal tachycardia
e. congestive heart failure

36. the retentive tip of a clasps arm is placed in an undercut BECAUSE a flexible arm is BEST suited for
reciprocation
a. both the statement and the reason are correct and related
b. both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statement is correct, but the reason is NOT
d. the statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
e. NEITHER the statement NOOR the reason is correct

37. which of the following bacteria responsible for odontogenic infections are capable of adapting to either
a high or low oxygen containing environment
a. enteric organism
b. obligate anaerobes
c. facultative organism
d. synergistic organism
e. microaerophilic organism

38. which of the following injuries to the teeth MOST often results in pulpal necrosis
a. avulsion
b. concussion
c. lateral luxation
d. intrusive luxation
e. extrusive luxation

39. which of the following physical signs indicates severe CNS oxygen deprivation
a. dilated pupils with increased light reflex
b. pinpoint pupils with increased light reflex
c. dilated pupils with an absence of light reflex
d. pinpoint pupils with an absence of light reflex
a. porphyria
b. progeria
c. acrodynia
d. cystic fib

answers.........
 
for making retentive grooves in Cl 2 preparation in mand left second premolar which is the bbest hand instrument used
A. 10-7-14
B. 15-8-8
C. 13-80-8-14
D. 13-95-8-14

Arrange in the order of Lowest to highest Density
Gold
Dentin
Enamel
Amalgam
Porcelain
Composite
Thanks in advance.
need to confirm......
 
Gigantism is caused by
A. a hyperactive thyroid.
B. atrophy of the posterior pituitary.
C. hyperplasia of the anterior pituitary.👎
D. hyperplasia of the parathyroids.
E. None of the above.

It should be the right answer.
 
1. Additional cured silicones (polyvinyl Siloxane) are often the materials of choice for impressions for
fixed restorations. Each of the following is true about these materials except one. Which one is this
exception?
a. give off ethyl alcohol during their setting reaction👎
b. can be poured more than once and still remain accurate
c. can be poured after 24 hours and still remain accurate
d. rebound from undercuts without permanent deformation
e. may released hydrogen gas during setting
d
2. Why is it advisable to dispense the liquid component of cement of cement immediately before mixing?
a. to avoid absorption of moisture from the air
b. to avoid spreading over a large area of the slab
c. to allow tempering of the powder by the mixing slab
d. to reduce the temperature influence of the mixing slab
e. to prevent evaporation of the volatile components.👎
E
3 which of the following is the typical interocclusal distance between opposing denture teeth at the
physiological rest position?
a. 0.0-0.15 mm
b. 2.0-4.0 mm👎
c. 4.5-5.5 mm
d 6.0-8.0 mm
b
4 As an X-ray tube operates, electrons carry energy from the cathode to the anode into which of the
following is MOST of this energy converted in the target?
a. heat👎
b. X ray
c. Magnetism
d. electricity
e. visible light
A or B not sure
5 Class II amalgam restoration has a overhang at gingival margin. This might have been caused by which
of the following?
a. poor adaptation of the matrix band
b. poor carving👎
c. did not wedge the matrix band
c
6 At what age are all primary teeth normally in occlusion?
a. 1.5-2.0 years
b. 2.5-3.0 years👎
c. 3.5-4 years
d. >4 years
a
7 Larger condensers and laterally applied condensation forces are recommended to ensure complete
condensation of which of the following amalgam types?
a. admixed
b. spherical👎
c. lathe-cut
d. high-copper
e. conventional

9 occlusal sealants succeed by altering which of the following
a. the substrate
b. the bacterial types
c. the bacterial number
d. the bacterial virulence
e. the host's susceptibility👎
a
10 probing depth can vary based on the degree of inflammation
frequently, the reduction in probing depth obtained after initial therapy reflects this changes, rather than a
true gain in clinical attachment.
a. both statements are true👎
b. both statements are false
c. the first statement is true, the second statement is false
d. the first statement is false, the second is true
a???
11 a major advantage to patient treatment with osseointegrated dental implants is a change in the pattern of
edentulous ridge resorption, which of the following is believed to be the reason for a more physiologic
loading of the bone
a. delayed loading
b. endosteal loading*
c. sequential loading
d. progressive loading
e. mucoperiosteal loading
d
12 an 18 year old man complains of tingling in his lower lip. an examination discloses a painless, hard
swelling of his mandibular premolar region. the patient first noticed this swelling three weeks ago.
radiograph indicate a loss of cortex and a diffuse radiating pattern of trabeculae in the mass. which of the
following is the MOST likely diagnosis
a. leukemia
b. dentigerous cyst
c. ossifying fibroma
d. osteoma*
e. hyperparathyroidism
c
13 increasing the amount of water in the mix of an improved gypsum die-stone will MOST likely result in
which of the following
a. more expansion and more strength
b. more expansion and less strength
c. less expansion and more strength
d. less expansion and less strength*
14 which of the following is recommended for treating the pain of tic douloureux (trigeminal neuralgia)?
a. oxycodone
b. ibuprofen
c. carbamazepine*
d. hydrocortisone
e. acetylsalicylic acid
c.
15 which of the following is seen MOST frequently among temporomandibular-joint dysfunction patient
a. depression*
b. psychosis
c. sociopathy
d. schizotypical behavior
e. passive-aggressive behavior
a.
16 which of the following diagnostic criteria is the LEAST reliable in the assessment of the pulp status in
the primary dentition
a. swelling
b. pulp testing*
c. spontaneous pain
d. internal resorption
d


answers plz.......

please correct if I am wrong. Thank you.
 
16 which of the following diagnostic criteria is the LEAST reliable in the assessment of the pulp status in
the primary dentition
a. swelling
b. pulp testing*
c. spontaneous pain
d. internal resorption

17 which of the following explains why the Z-plasty technique used in modifying a labial frenum is
considered to be superior to the diamond technique
a. it is less traumatic
b. it is technically easier
c. it requires fewer sutures
d. it decreases the effects of scar contracture.*
e. it allows for closure by secondary intention

18 which of the following MOST accurately explains how biofeedback works
a. it reduced cognitive dissonance
b. it stimulates the sympathetic nervous system
c. it relaz and to some extent hypnotizes the patient
d. it distracts and engages the patient in an active coping task.
e. it enables the patient to gain control of certain physiological function*

19 which of the following describes clindamycin
a. inhibits cell wall synthesis
b. does not penetrate well into bony tissue
c. it usually given in combination with erythromycin
d. is effective against gram-negative bacteria only
e. is effective against most anaerobes*

20 dentists usually send their cemento-metal restoration cases to dental lab for fabrication. upon receiving
the cases, these technicians MOST frequently complain that the
a. margines have been ill-defined
b. teeth have been insufficiently reduced*
c. shades for the restorations have been inadequately described
d. impressions or models are inaccurate

21 which of the following characteristics of autism presents a major obstacle to successful dental
management of an ambulatory patient
a. impaired communication*
b. apparent insensitivity to pain
c. lack of intellectual development
d. inability to perform fine-motor activities
e. automation, such as hair twirling and body rocking

22 the prognosis for bleaching is favorable when the discoloration is caused by
a. necrotic pulp tissue*
b. amalgam restoration
c. precipitation of metallic salts
d. silver-containing root canal sealers



25 occlusal disharmony in newly inserted complete dentures MOST frequently results from which of the
following
a. improper waxing
b. overextension of borders
c. errors in registering jaw relations*
d. changes in supporting structures following insertion of dentures

26 inflammation from periodontal disease usually extends to the bone marrow following
a. trauma from occlusion
b. the nutrient canals
c. the periodontal ligament
d. the course of the vascular channels*

27 how many hours per day should a cervical pull headgear be worn to achieve the MOST affective results
a. 6
b. 8
c. 10
d. 12
e. 14*

28 which of the following outlines BEST describes the access cavity preparation on a mandibular molar
with four canals
a. oval
b. trapezoidal*
c. triangular
d. round

30 which of the following represents in the classic sign or symptom of an anterior displaced disc with
reduction
a. pain
b. closed lock
c. reciprocal click*
d. temporal headache
e. decreased range of motion

31 when evaluating an extension-base removable partial denture several years after delivery, the dentist
should apply loading forces to the base area. if an indirect retainer elevates from its rest seat under these
forces, then this indicated the need to
a. tighten the clasps
b. adjust the occlusion
c. reline the base area*
d. remake the partial denture
e. advise the patient to use a denture adhesive

32. current accept technique for reduced pocket depth except one, which one is exception?
a. gingivectomy
b. gingival curettage
c. S & R
d. debridement surgery
e. osseous surgery😕

33. When determining the appropriate dose of systemic fluoride supplement for a child, it is MOST
important for the dentist to consider which of the following
a. The fluoride content of the drinking water
b. the child’s diet and caries activity
c. the child ago and the fluoride content of the drinking water*
d. the child’s weight and the fluoride content of the drinking water.

34. which of the following statements about the bacterial etiology of enamel surface dental caries is
INCORRECT
a. caries is a transmissible bacterial infection
b. the presence of S. mutans in dental plague means the patient has caries*
c. pits and fissures from which S. mutans can be cultured may not become carious

35. a patient who takes dicumarol is probably being treated for
a. hypertension
b. angina pectoris
c. coronary infarct*
d. paroxysmal tachycardia
e. congestive heart failure

36. the retentive tip of a clasps arm is placed in an undercut BECAUSE a flexible arm is BEST suited for
reciprocation
a. both the statement and the reason are correct and related
b. both the statement and the reason are correct but NOT related
c. the statement is correct, but the reason is NOT*
d. the statement is NOT correct, but the reason is correct
e. NEITHER the statement NOOR the reason is correct

37. which of the following bacteria responsible for odontogenic infections are capable of adapting to either
a high or low oxygen containing environment
a. enteric organism
b. obligate anaerobes
c. facultative organism*
d. synergistic organism
e. microaerophilic organism

38. which of the following injuries to the teeth MOST often results in pulpal necrosis
a. avulsion*
b. concussion
c. lateral luxation
d. intrusive luxation
e. extrusive luxation

39. which of the following physical signs indicates severe CNS oxygen deprivation
a. dilated pupils with increased light reflex
b. pinpoint pupils with increased light reflex
c. dilated pupils with an absence of light reflex*
d. pinpoint pupils with an absence of light reflex
a. porphyria
b. progeria
c. acrodynia
d. cystic fib

answers.........

Please correct if I am wrong. Thx.
 
A single tooth anterior crossbite found in a 9 year
old should
A. self-correct.
B. be treated with a removable appliance.
C. have 2 arch orthodontic treatment.😕
D. be treated in the complete permanent
dentition.
E. be observed and treated when the cuspids
have erupted
 
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