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Riddle me this: Why do we seem to prefer Bumex (over Lasix) as the agent of diuresis during an acute CHF exacerbation (in a patient with CKD, perhaps an acute AKI).
We know Bumex is more potent and it's bioavailability is higher than that of Lasix, but all that means is you can give a lower dose of Bumex (1-2 mg), vs the 20-40mg of Lasix. Ok, I know psychologically we feel better for giving the lower dose medication . . . but that aside, is there really any reason to give Bumex over Lasix? (they both work the same, loop diuretics, right?).
We know Bumex is more potent and it's bioavailability is higher than that of Lasix, but all that means is you can give a lower dose of Bumex (1-2 mg), vs the 20-40mg of Lasix. Ok, I know psychologically we feel better for giving the lower dose medication . . . but that aside, is there really any reason to give Bumex over Lasix? (they both work the same, loop diuretics, right?).