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Hey Everyone,
I honestly tried searching for older threads but wasn't able to find anything that truly addressed my question, my sincere apologies for the redundancy. If anyone can redirect me to a previous discussion, I'd be appreciative.
If I were to be asked "why DO?" tomorrow, I'd probably say something to this extent:
"I honestly don't see much of a difference between allopathy and osteopathy. At the end of the day, I want to simply be a doctor, I don't care for the initials after my name. In reading Gevitz's book about DOs in America, I learned that the two philosophies have basically converged in modern times. Both employ the paradigm of evidence based medicine, both use the same diagnostic tools, and with the exception of OMT, both learn the same medicine. I want to say, though, that I am interested in OMT. I think it would be worthwhile having an extra tool in my arsenal, in having an extra modality of treatment at my disposal when I practice. But all in all, I don't see the difference and would be more than happy to attend any school that makes possible my dream of becoming a physician."
Would that be a good answer? I actually outlined said answer to a third year osteopathic student a couple of weeks back and he basically said, "don't say that." He said that interviewers don't want to hear about the similarities between allopathy and osteopathy, but rather, about what makes osteopathy unique and something people should pursue. Talking to him left me somewhat confused. I thought I'd consult the wise men and women of SDN for their insight. 🙂 Is that answer not a good one? Should I rethink my approach? What is the best way to answer the question, with tact and whilst expressing a comprehensive knowledge of what osteopathy really entails?
Help is appreciated!
I honestly tried searching for older threads but wasn't able to find anything that truly addressed my question, my sincere apologies for the redundancy. If anyone can redirect me to a previous discussion, I'd be appreciative.
If I were to be asked "why DO?" tomorrow, I'd probably say something to this extent:
"I honestly don't see much of a difference between allopathy and osteopathy. At the end of the day, I want to simply be a doctor, I don't care for the initials after my name. In reading Gevitz's book about DOs in America, I learned that the two philosophies have basically converged in modern times. Both employ the paradigm of evidence based medicine, both use the same diagnostic tools, and with the exception of OMT, both learn the same medicine. I want to say, though, that I am interested in OMT. I think it would be worthwhile having an extra tool in my arsenal, in having an extra modality of treatment at my disposal when I practice. But all in all, I don't see the difference and would be more than happy to attend any school that makes possible my dream of becoming a physician."
Would that be a good answer? I actually outlined said answer to a third year osteopathic student a couple of weeks back and he basically said, "don't say that." He said that interviewers don't want to hear about the similarities between allopathy and osteopathy, but rather, about what makes osteopathy unique and something people should pursue. Talking to him left me somewhat confused. I thought I'd consult the wise men and women of SDN for their insight. 🙂 Is that answer not a good one? Should I rethink my approach? What is the best way to answer the question, with tact and whilst expressing a comprehensive knowledge of what osteopathy really entails?
Help is appreciated!
