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Come across this question in uworld and am confused.
Question: patient came in with obvious sign for IE and was given empiric vancomycin, then blood culture turned out to be strep. Virindans. what's next step?
Correct answer: IV ceftriaxone
BUT, isn't this 3rd generation cephalosporin cover mostly gram negative bug? Why choose this one?
Question: patient came in with obvious sign for IE and was given empiric vancomycin, then blood culture turned out to be strep. Virindans. what's next step?
Correct answer: IV ceftriaxone
BUT, isn't this 3rd generation cephalosporin cover mostly gram negative bug? Why choose this one?