So for a patient with no coagulopathies, what systolic pressure would be needed to make them bleed through a previous cut which has clotted already? I assume the cut size matters. What would it be for something like a shaving cut vs a stab wound?
I'll take a stab, 300/150. Did the pressure get up that high? It didn't? Then you don't have a case. Bah, the case won't be your big career Kahuna, dude. Keep chasin' them ambulances.... Regards, ---Zip
I'll take a stab, 300/150. Did the pressure get up that high? It didn't? Then you don't have a case. Bah, the case won't be your big career Kahuna, dude. Keep chasin' them ambulances.... Regards, ---Zip
Im not a lawyer. I was discussing this with the gas resident on a case I observed yesterday. (The tamponade case I posted about in the other thread. We talked about why she wanted him to be hypertensive, so being the premed student I am, I started bombarding her with useless hypotheticals)
okay, i'll bite... why did she want him to be hypertensive? and, how hypertensive? there are very rare instances where i want a patient to be purposefully hypertensive... do you happen to know when? (just asking.)
okay, i'll bite... why did she want him to be hypertensive? and, how hypertensive? there are very rare instances where i want a patient to be purposefully hypertensive... do you happen to know when? (just asking.)
She wanted him to be hypertensive because the patient had tamponade. Increasing his blood pressure increases the CVP, which helps increase cardiac filling pressure, which increases preload, which increases cardiac output. Since the right heart was collapsed, and the left heart not too nice looking either, maintaining output was critical, espically until the surgeon drained the effusion.