Bleeding myomectomies, "pt is clinically coagulopathic"

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coffeebythelake

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Had one of these annoying days where size of fibroids and amount of bleeding was much greater than the gyn surgeon expected. Healthy pt, started off anemic at 11. Pt bled about 3 liters, volume and blood resuscitated. Kept nicely warm throughout. Put in an a-line, sent labs and superstats hourly. pH was normal. Primary surgeon calls in help from a more experienced surgeon who declares pt to be "clinically coagulopathic" and strong-arms my CRNA to give FFP and cryoppt even though coagulation labs were all reasonable.

I find out about this after they start hanging the first FFP. I told them stop, argued with the surgeon a bit and sent the other products back. Gave 1g TXA. They refused pitocin, hemabate, methergine. Told them it was a surgical hemostasis issue, not coagulation issue. What do you expect from cutting into so much muscle? They ultimately tied off one of the uterine arteries, which goes to show it was hemostasis issue.

What's the point of labs if it doesn't guide any sort of management? The pt is slowly oozing not exanguinating.

Annoyed.

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Playing devils advocate maybe. I don’t know the weight of the individual but that sounds like the patient lost close to half a blood volume that was replaced with pRBCs and non-blood fluid. The idea of having a relative deficiency of either fibrinogen or coagulation factors isn’t totally unreasonable in that scenario.

But also, yes, it’s almost always surgical bleeding in people without other comorbidities.
 
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If they actually bled 3 liters, they need FFP. I would have started sooner with FFP and platelets. Even if the coags were reasonable, they won’t be soon. It’s better not to let them get coagulopathic in the first place.

By the time you walked in, how many units of packed cells were given? How much crystalloid was infused? Why didn’t your CRNA call sooner?
 
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If they bled 3 liters, they need FFP. I would have started sooner with FFP and platelets.

By that point how many units of packed cells were given? How much crystalloid was infused?

2 units pRBC, 1 liter 5% albumin, 2.5 liter crystalloid IVF
Good urine output >0.5 cc/kg/hr
HDS, HR never above 75
Spv and ppv good
Overall suggesting euvolemia.

Multiple coag labs sent during case, q1hr
Hgb nadir at 7,

High normal PT, PTT, INR 1.4, fibrinogen never below 160, platelets never below 200.

If this was a hemorrhage and exanguination, labs might not reflect the real time situation. I would empirically give product. But this is slow continuous...
So you're telling me despite these normal coag labs u would still give FFP, platelets? I think not.
 
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2 units pRBC, 1 liter 5% albumin, 2.5 liter IVF
Good urine output >0.5 cc/kg/hr
HDS, HR never above 75
Overall suggesting euvolemia.

Multiple coag labs sent during case, q1hr
Hgb nadir at 7,

High normal PT, PTT, INR 1.4, fibrinogen never below 160, platelets never below 200.

You're telling me despite these normal coag labs u would still give FFP, platelets? I think not.


I would have based on blood loss. 3liters is a ton. How does somebody slowly ooze 3 liters? And the hgb values don’t make sense at all. Maybe there was less EBL?
 
I would have based on blood loss. 3liters is a ton. How does somebody slowly ooze 3 liters?

Bottom line, and my point of this.... does your clinical assessment trump lab work (or TEG or some other objective measure). We check labs hourly with normal results every time.

Now over the past few years, I've seen patients inadvertently transfused to Hgb 11-12 and FFP/plt/cryoppt given to patients with what turned out to be normal coagulation studies exactly because things were done empirically. I dont think this is considered good blood management practice esp when pt hemodynamically stable, we are able to keep pace, and not shock exanguinating.

I dont disagree with you and your concern than 3 liters is a lot!! If I didnt check labs I would consider give ffp.

This was an 6 hour case. Okay, bleed when excising multiple fibroid, volume repleted, stitched over, then continue. I felt we were able to keep the pt well up during the case, not playing catch up. So yes brief brisk bleeding (150-300 cc at a time over 15-20 min) over a background of slow bleeding from the suture sites. As case progressed, rate of blood loss went way down and mostly just slow oozing. This was when the surgeon declared the need for FFP and other things.
 
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I would have based on blood loss. 3liters is a ton. How does somebody slowly ooze 3 liters? And the hgb values don’t make sense at all. Maybe there was less EBL?

Definitely 2.5L in the blood canister, bags of laps soaked through with blood adds another 500cc. No irrigation used.

How is that Hgb not make sense? It is ballpark correct. Starts at 11 down to 7 after 2 units of blood
 
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3 liters is a lot. Also I treat surgeons the same way I treat CRNA’s. I.e. if it won’t put the patient in the mourge, I do what they say ....
 
How is that Hgb not make sense? It is ballpark correct. Starts at 11 down to 7 after 2 units of blood


I guess it depends on the size of the patient and the assumptions you make about her circulating blood volume. It makes a big difference if she is 50kg vs 100kg.

Our practice has been influenced by our experience with trauma patients where we tend to replace blood loss with blood. I think about replacing coagulation factors when the blood loss hits 1000-1500ml depending on expected continued losses. As an aside, I also learned recently that a 250-300ml unit of FFP is $30 vs $150 for a 500ml bottle of 5% albumin.
 
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Bottom line, and my point of this.... does your clinical assessment trump lab work (or TEG or some other objective measure). We check labs hourly with normal results every time.

Now over the past few years, I've seen patients inadvertently transfused to Hgb 11-12 and FFP/plt/cryoppt given to patients with what turned out to be normal coagulation studies exactly because things were done empirically. I dont think this is considered good blood management practice esp when pt hemodynamically stable, we are able to keep pace, and not shock exanguinating.

I dont disagree with you and your concern than 3 liters is a lot!! If I didnt check labs I would consider give ffp.

This was an 6 hour case. Okay, bleed when excising multiple fibroid, volume repleted, stitched over, then continue. I felt we were able to keep the pt well up during the case, not playing catch up. So yes brief brisk bleeding (150-300 cc at a time over 15-20 min) over a background of slow bleeding from the suture sites. As case progressed, rate of blood loss went way down and mostly just slow oozing. This was when the surgeon declared the need for FFP and other things.
I feel your pain.
We have ready access to rotem, and the surgeons take our word for it when we Interpret the Rotem. It wasn’t always this way.

For what it’s worth, I doubt your patient needed anything other than cryo prbcs and txa
 
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If they actually bled 3 liters, they need FFP. I would have started sooner with FFP and platelets. Even if the coags were reasonable, they won’t be soon. It’s better not to let them get coagulopathic in the first place.

By the time you walked in, how many units of packed cells were given? How much crystalloid was infused? Why didn’t your CRNA call sooner?
Do you use thromboelastometry? I haven’t given FFP in years, this patient needed a better surgeon earlier not products
 
I guess it depends on the size of the patient and the assumptions you make about her circulating blood volume. It makes a big difference if she is 50kg vs 100kg..

Also a big difference in how fluid resuscitation occurs. A loss of 1/2 of blood volume doesn't equate to 1/2 drop in Hgb.
 
Do you use thromboelastometry? I haven’t given FFP in years, this patient needed a better surgeon earlier not products


No.

And I agree it’s possible that a better surgeon could have helped. For whatever reason (preserve fertility?), they were doing a myomectomy and not a hysterectomy in the setting of what sounds like massive fibroids. They probably did not want to ligate the uterine artery either.
 
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After resuscitation for massive traumatic hemorrhage, better oxygenation and faster extubation postop.

I think transfusion to 7 for a healthy young woman is a very reasonable goal. Not going to transfuse more for supposed better oxygenation and eztubation postop. Am I missing something?

“Ideally, blood loss should be replaced with crystalloid or colloid solutions to maintain intravascular volume (normovolemia) until the danger of anemia outweighs the risks of transfusion. At that point, further blood loss is replaced with transfusions of red blood cells to maintain hemoglobin concentration (or hematocrit) at that level. For most patients, that point corresponds to a hemoglobin between 7 and 10 g/dL (or a hematocrit of 21-30%). Below a hemoglobin concentration of 7 g/dL, the resting cardiac output has to increase greatly to maintain normal oxygen delivery” (Morgan & Mikhail, 1996).
 
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Giving blood carries risk. Infection, trali....
Yeah. But 3L blood loss is close to a massive transfusion protocol. At that point it is just red or yellow saline to me. Resuscitate to stable vital signs and nice looking labs, keep patient intubated and send to ICU for weaning in the morning....
 
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Yeah. But 3L blood loss is close to a massive transfusion protocol. At that point it is just red or yellow saline to me. Resuscitate to stable vital signs and nice looking labs, keep patient intubated and send to ICU for weaning in the morning....

I mean this is a very reasonable plan for massive transfusion in the setting of trauma and hemorrhage. Any labs you draw would reflect the patients volume situation from 15-30 min ago, much too late to be meaningful when bleeding is rapid.

Not sure if it applies to the myomectomy scenario, where there is time to replete components based on reliable lab

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even in cases of traumatic hemorrhage, many protocols involve empiric administration at ratios followed by lab result based administration of blood products. (JPAC - Transfusion Guidelines)
 
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3L blood loss (ongoing) with all that resuscitation? You better bet I’m dripping in a couple of FFPs, and probably a pack of platelets. You’ve essentially got a controlled trauma on your hands with all the exposed tissue factor, etc...

I wish I could say TEG was a perfect test and clearly delineated where the coagulopathy is. But it’s not. This person probably is having a dilutonal protein deficiency but also has what some call a “prolene” deficiency.
 
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Giving blood carries risk. Infection, trali....

TRALI incidence has decreased greatly since we moved from high volume crystalloid resuscitation to 1:1:1 product resuscitation.

I think transfusion to 7 for a healthy young woman is a very reasonable goal. Not going to transfuse more for supposed better oxygenation and eztubation postop. Am I missing something?

“Ideally, blood loss should be replaced with crystalloid or colloid solutions to maintain intravascular volume (normovolemia) until the danger of anemia outweighs the risks of transfusion. At that point, further blood loss is replaced with transfusions of red blood cells to maintain hemoglobin concentration (or hematocrit) at that level. For most patients, that point corresponds to a hemoglobin between 7 and 10 g/dL (or a hematocrit of 21-30%). Below a hemoglobin concentration of 7 g/dL, the resting cardiac output has to increase greatly to maintain normal oxygen delivery” (Morgan & Mikhail, 1996).
Did you just quote best evidence from 23 years ago??? We have learned a lot about resuscitation since then thanks in no small part to at least 2 major wars fought in that time. Please review the trauma literature that’s come out since 1996. Massive blood loss is massive blood loss. Doesn’t matter if it was at the hands of a scalpel or bullet or MVA.
 
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OK, there is a huge difference between a "surgeon" and a "gyn guy"! They just don't know much about anything relevant to your management of the patient.
So... if your "surgeon" is a gyn guy... don't have a discussion about hemodynamics or coagulation with him, just do what you think is best for the patient and if he objects pretend that you did not hear him.
 
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OK, there is a huge difference between a "surgeon" and a "gyn guy"! They just don't know much about anything relevant to your management of the patient.
So... if your "surgeon" is a gyn guy... don't have a discussion about hemodynamics or coagulation with him, just do what you think is best for the patient and if he objects pretend that you did not hear him.
For real though. My senior resident got woken up the other night by the ob's to read an ekg that was quite clearly sinus tach.
 
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TRALI incidence has decreased greatly since we moved from high volume crystalloid resuscitation to 1:1:1 product resuscitation.
Did you just quote best evidence from 23 years ago??? We have learned a lot about resuscitation since then thanks in no small part to at least 2 major wars fought in that time. Please review the trauma literature that’s come out since 1996. Massive blood loss is massive blood loss. Doesn’t matter if it was at the hands of a scalpel or bullet or MVA.

@SaltyDog, maybe i'm behind the times here... maybe there's a lot of new evidence i haven't heard of. Based on your remarks, am I to interpret the following?

1. That recent literature support transfusing well above 7 in a healthy surgical patient?
- American Association of Blood Banks (2016, JAMA) recommends restrictive RBC transfusion threshold of 7 g/dL for most hospitalized adult patients who are hemodynamically stable
- below 6-7 g/dL there is a significantly increase in cardiac output necessary to adequate perfuse end-organs
My practice - my GOAL Hgb is 7 for a healthy surgical patient, and my GOAL Hgb is higher for those with significant comorbidities. "GOAL" refers to end point. If a patient is bleeding briskly I TRANSFUSE earlier.

2. That recent literature support transfusing of FFP, cryoppt and platelets despite repeated, normal coagulation studies?
- then what's the point of sending and following coagulation labs if you're going to transfuse regardless of the result?
- The JPAC - Transfusion Guidelines as listed above for major hemorrhage is from 2013 onwards. It suggests initial resuscitation by transfusion ratios in an unstable patient, then transfusion directed based on lab results. Yes, it is from the UK. Maybe they have different management of hemorrhage. I can find some references from America, but as i remember it there aren't many differences.
My practice - In the face of reliable, repeated, objective lab data showing no evidence of significant hypofibrinogemia, thrombocytopenia, or factor deficiency, I would offer TXA (Crash-2 Trial, Shakur et al., Lancet 2010) or DDAVP instead as the risk profile is lower

3. That there is any evidence that TRALI is caused by too much crystalloid and not due to transfusion of blood products?
- that giving 2 units of pRBC and fluids is MORE likely to cause TRALI than giving 2:2:2 pRBC:FFP: plt ? Seems unbelievable to me, since the "T" in TRALI stands for "transfusion", and the mechanisms involved (Fatalities Reported to FDA Following Blood Collection and Transfusion: Annual Summary for Fiscal Year 2015. https://www.fda.gov/downloads/Biolo...m/TransfusionDonationFatalities/UCM518148.pdf)
My practice - I do not give empiric ratio therapy unless patient is hemorrhaging quickly and I need to volume resuscitate them. Otherwise I do lab-directed therapy. The risk of TRALI and other complications of transfusion increase with every unit of blood product administered.

How quickly blood loss occurs matters. Definitions of hemorrhage take into account the time course. A patient losing 3 liters in an hour does not respond the same as a patient losing 3 liters over 6 hours (and its not the same as a patient losing 3 liters over 6 days). The clinician's assessment and management should likewise be different. When I get a polytrauma, cold, hypovolemic, acidotic pt who has already bled out 3 liters, you bet I'm doing empiric transfusion ratios. The exact ratios are subject to continued study, e.g., 1:1:1 vs 1:1:2. etc... (PROPPR trial, 2015; Transfusion in Patients With Severe Trauma), and yes in this particular situation there is evidence that using ratios is better-- although even this is debated.. (e.g., Fixed Ratio vs Goal Directed Therapy in Trauma Schochl et al., 2016; Effect of Fixed Ratio Transfusion protocol vs lab result guided transfusion in patients with severe trauma Nascimento et al., 2013; Change of transfusion and treatment paradigm in major trauma patients Stein et al., 2017) But when I have a carefully managed pt who has lost 3 liters over the course of many hours, hemodynamically stable, euvolemic, I'm doing lab-directed therapy not ratios. This should not be controversial.

Massive hemorrhage definitions often specify VOLUMES over TIMES: e.g., (i) blood loss exceeding circulating blood volume within a 24-hour period, (ii) blood loss of 50% of circulating blood volume within a 3-hour period, (iii) blood loss exceeding 150 ml/min, or (iv) blood loss that necessitates plasma and platelet transfusion [3], although there is no universal definition. (Irita, KJA 2011)

Finally... I did NOT "quote best evidence from 23 years ago". I referenced something from a textbook that is still considered a reasonable standard today, and which continues to be supported by expert opinion.

Again.. this seems incredibly intuitive to me, but am I missing something??
 
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@SaltyDog, maybe i'm behind the times here... maybe there's a lot of new evidence i haven't heard of. Am I to interpret the following?

1. That recent literature support transfusing well above 7 in a healthy surgical patient?
- American Association of Blood Banks (2016, JAMA) recommends restrictive RBC transfusion threshold of 7 g/dL for most hospitalized adult patients who are hemodynamically stable
- below 6-7 g/dL there is a significantly increase in cardiac output necessary to adequate perfuse end-organs

2. That recent literature support transfusing of FFP, cryoppt and platelets despite repeated, normal coagulation studies?
- then what's the point of sending and following coagulation labs if you're going to transfuse regardless of the result?
- The JPAC - Transfusion Guidelines as listed above for major hemorrhage is from 2013 onwards

3. That there is any evidence that TRALI is caused by too much crystalloid and not due to transfusion of blood products?
- that giving 2 units of pRBC and fluids is MORE likely to cause TRALI than giving 2:2:2 pRBC:FFP: plt ? Seems unbelievable to me, since the "T" in TRALI stands for "transfusion", and the mechanisms involve

Bottom line here:

Definitions of hemorrhage take into account the time course. A patient losing 3 liters in an hour does not respond the same as a patient losing 3 liters over 6 hours (and its not the same as a patient losing 3 liters over 6 days). The clinician's response should likewise be different.

Massive hemorrhage can be defined as follows: (i) blood loss exceeding circulating blood volume within a 24-hour period, (ii) blood loss of 50% of circulating blood volume within a 3-hour period, (iii) blood loss exceeding 150 ml/min, or (iv) blood loss that necessitates plasma and platelet transfusion [3], although there is no universal definition. (Irita, KJA 2011)


I would say a lot of evidence out there do not apply well for us. its difficult to simply extrapolate evidence like that and other times its just flat out inappropriate to do so. i think thats why people say anesthesia is a mix of art and science.

1) was that data done in intraoperative patients? because inpatient are very different than patients in the OR. there are many reasons for anemia in hospitalized patients.. iron deficiency, blood draws, inflammatory states, etc, that do not result in rapid drops in hct, and can sometimes be treated by treating underlying cause. Its a totally different situation in the OR. if they oozed 3Ls, which is a lot, and the crit is now 25, and i know they still have a while to go, i'm transfusing. i dont care about hct of 18-21 stated in some studies about hospitalized patients. because i know the patient will keep oozing intraop and post op as well. myomectomy is also a high blood loss case, so i like to stay ahead of the game a bit without going overboard.

Also, coagulation studies are imperfect. we still dont understand coagulation 100%. oozing in field matters. it's not all about labs at all. it's about the entire picture. if the crit is 42, and the surgeon is doing a lipoma, and tells me its oozy so transfuse platelets/ffp, id tell the surgeon hell no.
 
I would say a lot of evidence out there do not apply well for us. its difficult to simply extrapolate evidence like that and other times its just flat out inappropriate to do so. i think thats why people say anesthesia is a mix of art and science.

1) was that data done in intraoperative patients? because inpatient are very different than patients in the OR. there are many reasons for anemia in hospitalized patients.. iron deficiency, blood draws, inflammatory states, etc, that do not result in rapid drops in hct, and can sometimes be treated by treating underlying cause. Its a totally different situation in the OR. if they oozed 3Ls, which is a lot, and the crit is now 25, and i know they still have a while to go, i'm transfusing. i dont care about hct of 18-21 stated in some studies about hospitalized patients. because i know the patient will keep oozing intraop and post op as well. myomectomy is also a high blood loss case, so i like to stay ahead of the game a bit without going overboard.

Also, coagulation studies are imperfect. we still dont understand coagulation 100%. oozing in field matters. it's not all about labs at all. it's about the entire picture. if the crit is 42, and the surgeon is doing a lipoma, and tells me its oozy so transfuse platelets/ffp, id tell the surgeon hell no.

Now you're arguing for the sake of arguing. If patient continues to bleed you transfuse with the expectation the Hgb will trend downward. It's called "not playing catch up". The more brisk the bleeding and the more predicted bleeding to follow, the more likely I will transfuse at a higher Hgb. You can include perioperative fluid shifts, predicted postop blood loss... etc... blah blah blah in the estimate of losses. As I've said, the time course matters. But what evidence is there that your GOAL Hgb need be drastically disparate from AABB recommendations? They make no distinction between surgical patients and others. References for everything else you say?
 
Now you're arguing for the sake of arguing. If patient continues to bleed you transfuse with the expectation the Hgb will trend downward. It's called "not playing catch up". The more brisk the bleeding and the more predicted bleeding to follow, the more likely I will transfuse at a higher Hgb. You can include perioperative fluid shifts, predicted postop blood loss... etc... blah blah blah in the estimate of losses. As I've said, the time course matters. But what evidence is there that your GOAL Hgb need be drastically disparate from AABB recommendations? They make no distinction between surgical patients and others. References for everything else you say?

Not really. i'm just stating that the field is not strongly evidence based. i think you are looking for things where it doesn't really exist. similar to another one of my recent posts, these are all 'guidelines' at best. we use our individual judgments based on all the information we have, which is something that studies can't capture. Not making a distinction between surgical patients and others is in itself a weakness, as i am sure most of us agree that the 2 are in different categories. we are trying our best to be an evidence based field obviously, but the evidence in medicine today is still weak, and there have been studies showing many papers (not necc in medicine) are not even reproducible. not saying to ignore it, but just saying studies have their limits

Another thing is why did you refuse to give pitocin, etc? if you felt a need for it, why not give it
 
what i meant was why not just give it thru the IV.

because a single dose isn't going to fix anything will have to run a drip, and then i'll have to explain to the surgeon why i decided to do this despite their clear disapproval.

it also doesn't fix the underlying surgical hemostasis issue.
 
because a single dose isn't going to fix anything will have to run a drip, and then i'll have to explain to the surgeon why i decided to do this despite their clear disapproval.

it also doesn't fix the underlying surgical hemostasis issue.

squirt it in your IV bag. no one will know ;)
 
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Does it really matter? Patient is bleeding, surgeon wants product, just give product. It's low risk enough, plus it'll help the surgeon out. I'm not going to argue that an INR of 1.4 is fine in an actively bleeding patient who's lost >3L EBL. Not worth the arguing IMO...
 
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Does it really matter? Patient is bleeding, surgeon wants product, just give product. It's low risk enough, plus it'll help the surgeon out. I'm not going to argue that an INR of 1.4 is fine in an actively bleeding patient who's lost >3L EBL. Not worth the arguing IMO...

i do what i think is best for the patient, even if that means disagreeing with the surgeon
FFP has an INR of 1.5-1.6. It will not correct an INR of 1.4.
Pt is subjected to all the inherent risks with essentially no benefit.
And to what end? Just keep transfusing unit after unit of FFP until they realize it doesn't do anything?
if you think that's not worth arguing...
 
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2 units pRBC, 1 liter 5% albumin, 2.5 liter crystalloid IVF
Good urine output >0.5 cc/kg/hr
HDS, HR never above 75
Spv and ppv good
Overall suggesting euvolemia.

Multiple coag labs sent during case, q1hr
Hgb nadir at 7,

High normal PT, PTT, INR 1.4, fibrinogen never below 160, platelets never below 200.

If this was a hemorrhage and exanguination, labs might not reflect the real time situation. I would empirically give product. But this is slow continuous...
So you're telling me despite these normal coag labs u would still give FFP, platelets? I think not.

How come you didn't get a TEG? PT/INR might be lagging behind a bit and a fibrinogen of 160 is right at the border (150) where I'd consider giving cryo in an ongoing hemorrhage.
 
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I agree that FFP probably not going to fix much. I personally would have given cryo earlier, and probably a little more blood one the blood loss was past 2 L and no end in sight.

OP, what was the fibrinogen throughout the case? Question for others, what is your threshold for cryo? Around 160 is very low for me.
 
I agree that FFP probably not going to fix much. I personally would have given cryo earlier, and probably a little more blood one the blood loss was past 2 L and no end in sight.

OP, what was the fibrinogen throughout the case? Question for others, what is your threshold for cryo? Around 160 is very low for me.

usually 200. cant find you the paper though
 
I agree that FFP probably not going to fix much. I personally would have given cryo earlier, and probably a little more blood one the blood loss was past 2 L and no end in sight.

OP, what was the fibrinogen throughout the case? Question for others, what is your threshold for cryo? Around 160 is very low for me.

160 is low for a pregnant woman in labor. It is not low for otherwise healthy adult where the lower limit of normal is 200. The MTP I've looked at cited 150 for cryo. As said before, even some high risk spine protocols dont transfuse cryoppt until less than 150.

I will ha e to look back at records to get info on fibrinigen trends during case
 
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OBs playing surgeon is one of the reasons I can't be paid enough to do OB.

And when about resus, the surgeon should go f*ck herself. When about non-surgical issues, s/he's the consultant, so I will listen, but there is no real "co-management" (not that I tell them that). If I do something, it's because I think it's not unreasonable. E.g. I will not go to war over a couple of FFPs, especially if the patient needs some volume anyway.

Unfortunately, @eikenhein, most groups will not erect you a statue for doing the right thing, so keep your own family in mind. The more surgical ego you step on (and, don't forget, surgeons talk among themselves, so you are not dealing just with one of them), the less safe your job becomes. Let them save some face, especially in a public dispute. Otherwise, you'll accumulate points on your "license". ;)
 
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OBs playing surgeon is one of the reasons I can't be paid enough to do OB.

And when about resus, the surgeon should go f*ck herself. When about non-surgical issues, s/he's the consultant, so I will listen, but there is no real "co-management" (not that I tell them that). If I do something, it's because I think it's not unreasonable. E.g. I will not go to war over a couple of FFPs, especially if the patient needs some volume anyway.

Unfortunately, @eikenhein, most groups will not erect you a statue for doing the right thing, so keep your own family in mind. The more surgical ego you step on (and, don't forget, surgeons talk among themselves, so you are not dealing just with one of them), the less safe your job becomes. Let them save some face, especially in a public dispute. Otherwise, you'll accumulate points on your "license". ;)

this situation of blood management happens fairly frequently with the gyn attendings and the anesthesiologists. I work in the women's hospital about once or twice a month, and I'm happy this way. I much prefer working in the main hospital.
 
this situation of blood management happens fairly frequently with the gyn attendings and the anesthesiologists. I work in the women's hospital about once or twice a month, and I'm happy this way. I much prefer working in the main hospital.
I feel your pain, brother/sister.
 
OBs playing surgeon is one of the reasons I can't be paid enough to do OB.

And when about resus, the surgeon should go f*ck herself. When about non-surgical issues, s/he's the consultant, so I will listen, but there is no real "co-management" (not that I tell them that). If I do something, it's because I think it's not unreasonable. E.g. I will not go to war over a couple of FFPs, especially if the patient needs some volume anyway.

Unfortunately, @eikenhein, most groups will not erect you a statue for doing the right thing, so keep your own family in mind. The more surgical ego you step on (and, don't forget, surgeons talk among themselves, so you are not dealing just with one of them), the less safe your job becomes. Let them save some face, especially in a public dispute. Otherwise, you'll accumulate points on your "license". ;)
This. You just can’t disagree too much with surgeons in our specialty. They won’t hesitate to go to your chairman or theirs to complain. Also they will transfuse whatever they want as soon as the patient is out of the OR so who are you really helping? The only thing I don’t compromise on is airway management or Adequete IV access.
 
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I may have a somewhat lazier approach, but if someone has lost 3L and I've only given pRBCs as a product and the surgeon is complaining about a perception of increased oozing or poor hemostasis, I would have to have a really strong opinion on the matter to not also give at least some FFP. In this scenario I wouldn't even bother waiting for labs, but I would likely get a n ABG and TEG once I have hit whatever transfusion target I set.

Even in the event I am somehow very confident there is no coagulation deficit, that is a very high mountain to push that boulder up to make that argument.
 
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How big is this patient anyway. 3L blood loss a few liters of fluid and 2 uprbc? And still decent hct with a starting crit of 33?

90 to 100 kg

How you resuscitate matters. If you keep up with IVF, you can lose more than half your blood volume without dropping your Hgb in half. Some of the IVF you administer ends up being bled back out during the case. Bleed, dilute out remaining blood with IVF, bleed. ,It's not simple math.
 
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