boost after hypofx wbi

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Pointless

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What is everyone's opinion regarding boost following hypofx whole breast RT (e.g. 42.5 in 16 fx)? I find myself being much more selective in who I will boost after hypofx treatment, while still routinely boosting all conventionally-fractionated patients. As the BED is essentially equal between conventional and hypofx treatment, it makes no sense to boost one and not the other, but there it is. What is everyone else doing?
 
I typically do the Lyon boost, 10 Gy in 4 fractions. That gives you a nice round 20 treatments in 4 weeks. I'd also agree with 10 Gy in 5 fractions or even just giving the last of the 5 fractions in a BID fashion.
 
We are using the START B hypofx scheme, which is 39.9 Gy in 2.66 Gy / fraction for WBI.

For boost we are giving 10.64-13.3 Gy in 4-5 fractions of 2.66 Gy each.
That's more than then typical 10/2, but we tend to give a lot of 16/2 as well after 50/2, so we like to keep our boost-dose higher anyways... START B gave 10/2.
 
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Don't treat people I'd boost on Canadian. If they need a boost, I'm doing 61/33.
Sticking to Whelan. I get that there is good UK data, but I'm sticking with my countrymen on this one.
 
Where I trained, most everyone got boosted after conventional. What are your indications to boost? Age <50 y, high grade, close/positive margins, ER/PR negative?
 
Don't treat people I'd boost on Canadian. If they need a boost, I'm doing 61/33.
Sticking to Whelan. I get that there is good UK data, but I'm sticking with my countrymen on this one.

This is essentially our institutional policy unless they are willing and eligible to enroll on RTOG 1005.
 
Where I trained, most everyone got boosted after conventional. What are your indications to boost? Age <50 y, high grade, close/positive margins, ER/PR negative?

One (or more) of the following:

a) premenopausal status or age <50y
b) >T1
c) N+
d) G3
e) L1
f) V1
g) ER and PR negative (under 10% positive receptors)
h) margin < 4mm
i) multifocal tumor
 
Interesting. On the pathology reports I see, they are seldom differentiated (e.g. just LVI). Is it relevant to differentiate them?

I am not sure.

I think L1 = LVI in North America. But noone calls it LVI in Europe (at least where I trained).
 
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