Sorry, I don't seem to understand this question. Any help would be great.
The answer is D, and the reasoning in the explanation is that D makes diffraction effect greater and more pronounced.
I'm having trouble understanding the reasoning of this question. We don't consider "single-slit" diffraction because they are very pronounced? i thought it was just the opposite, A.
-No additional relevant informationA typical double-slit is actually two single slits placed near one another. The equations describing the location of the bright and dark fringes that result from two-slit interference do not take into account the diffractive effects of each single slit. This is because we assume that:
a.) single slit effects are masked by the double-slit pattern.
b.) d is much greater than (lamda)
c.) d + a is comparable to (lamda)
d.) a is comparable or smaller than lamda.
The answer is D, and the reasoning in the explanation is that D makes diffraction effect greater and more pronounced.
I'm having trouble understanding the reasoning of this question. We don't consider "single-slit" diffraction because they are very pronounced? i thought it was just the opposite, A.